- Joined
- Apr 30, 2007
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Why is it that the stats for DO schools (avg MCAT etc.) are lower than the allopathic ones? From what I understand, the DO approach teaches what the MD's learn, as well as osteopathic methods, so it seems they are almost learning more than MD's, yet the avg stats of their admitted are lower...why so?
And forget "flaming" me...I'm seriously just asking a question, and for some reason everyone is extra sensitive on this board, so please respect the fact that this is a legitimate question and not meant to be rude or "trollish." I'm honestly just curious..
And forget "flaming" me...I'm seriously just asking a question, and for some reason everyone is extra sensitive on this board, so please respect the fact that this is a legitimate question and not meant to be rude or "trollish." I'm honestly just curious..