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Uworld had a classic case of a "mottled, kidney graft" with the answer being "antibody mediated hypersensitivity" but there was another option that had immune complex...so I'm a bit confused about the path of hyperacute rejection. One thing is for sure...it is antibody mediated and the classic buzzword is "thrombosis with fibrinoid necrosis of blood vessels" However, when you break down the scenarios, my understanding is:
1.) I agree that it is type II in the context of a blood cell [non-febrile RBC-surface antigen or febrile WBC-HLA antigen mismatch (i.e.- in a blood transfusion) where the attack would occur asap)
2.) But in terms of organ transplants, isn't this type III? Isn't this essentially an Arthus reaction with immune complexes forming and depositing in the renal artery to be specific causing this thrombosis? If so, I'm just a bit indecisive once again about whether Hyperacute rejection is Type II or Type III given this context of the UWorld question.
1.) I agree that it is type II in the context of a blood cell [non-febrile RBC-surface antigen or febrile WBC-HLA antigen mismatch (i.e.- in a blood transfusion) where the attack would occur asap)
2.) But in terms of organ transplants, isn't this type III? Isn't this essentially an Arthus reaction with immune complexes forming and depositing in the renal artery to be specific causing this thrombosis? If so, I'm just a bit indecisive once again about whether Hyperacute rejection is Type II or Type III given this context of the UWorld question.