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- Aug 30, 2005
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I've been reading Lange and I am confused about the following:
1) I understand induction...100% O2, sedate with propofol, paralyze with -curarine, anesthetize with -flurane. I can't really figure out maintenance...you continue with -flurane anesthetic to minimize pain, but what about sedation and paralysis? Do you continue giving propofol to keep the patient unconscious and a NM blocker to paralyze? Since propofol and succinylcholine have short half-lives, do you keep injecting into the IV every 10-20 minutes?
2) I read that a con of LMA's is increased aspiration. Why is this? Shouldn't the inflatable cuff, positioned just below the epiglottis, prevent aspiration?
3) With respect to Phase 2 block and non-depol NM blockers, I understand why there is fade (depletion of ACh) and post-tetanic potentiation (increased pre-synaptic mobilization) when you test for muscle twitches. What I don't get is Phase 1! Shouldn't there be NO muscle twitching at all since your muscle cells are depolarized? And if the argument is that some of the cells have repolarized (ie progessed into Phase 2), wouldn't they display fading and post-tetanic potentiation?
So confused,
bb
1) I understand induction...100% O2, sedate with propofol, paralyze with -curarine, anesthetize with -flurane. I can't really figure out maintenance...you continue with -flurane anesthetic to minimize pain, but what about sedation and paralysis? Do you continue giving propofol to keep the patient unconscious and a NM blocker to paralyze? Since propofol and succinylcholine have short half-lives, do you keep injecting into the IV every 10-20 minutes?
2) I read that a con of LMA's is increased aspiration. Why is this? Shouldn't the inflatable cuff, positioned just below the epiglottis, prevent aspiration?
3) With respect to Phase 2 block and non-depol NM blockers, I understand why there is fade (depletion of ACh) and post-tetanic potentiation (increased pre-synaptic mobilization) when you test for muscle twitches. What I don't get is Phase 1! Shouldn't there be NO muscle twitching at all since your muscle cells are depolarized? And if the argument is that some of the cells have repolarized (ie progessed into Phase 2), wouldn't they display fading and post-tetanic potentiation?
So confused,
bb