IntelInside

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Kaplan says stroke volume affects both diastolic and systolic pressures. My understanding is that stroke volume while it does affect both (i.e. an increase in stroke volume with constant HR and TPR will increase both systolic and diastolic pressure), it will increase systolic pressure more than diastolic or does it have no effect on diastolic pressure? Is this correct?
 
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underdog427

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Correct me if i'm wrong...but stroke volume is EDV-ESV...so technically it really only applies to systole if you see the time period of where EDV starts and where ESV ends.
 
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IntelInside

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Correct me if i'm wrong...but stroke volume is EDV-ESV...so technically it really only applies to systole if you see the time period of where EDV starts and where ESV ends.
I thought that given a constant HR and TPR, if you increase SV systolic P increases accordingly and because you have the same time for blood runoff during diastole but a higher starting amount in the aorta due to the higher SV. Then after some of the blood runs off during diastole you would have a higher diastolic P because more would remain in the aorta than before.
 
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giants25

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Aug 18, 2009
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Your logic is correct. That's why it affects both systolic and diastolic pressures.