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I'm having a hard time understanding the pathophysiology of raised ICP:
Ok, to start with we all know that:
CPP = MAP - ICP
and
CBF = CPP/CVR
In order to keep a constant CPP, the MAP is kept high and the pt. is hyperventilated to increase CVR and thereby increase the CBF. My question is, will the increased CBF not increase the ICP and hence reduce CPP?
Another thing is: Raised ICP will decrease CPP. Decreased CPP will reduce CBF, unless there is a compensatoric decrease in CVR aswell. But then why are patients hyperventilated when hyperventilation increases CVR?
The alternative would be not to hyperventilate patients. What would this cause? ICP would raise because of more blood intracranially, and therefore CPP and CBF would fall. But the CVR would fall too, increasing the CBF.
I am very confused! Is there something I have misunderstood? Any relevant comments appreciated.
Singh
Ok, to start with we all know that:
CPP = MAP - ICP
and
CBF = CPP/CVR
In order to keep a constant CPP, the MAP is kept high and the pt. is hyperventilated to increase CVR and thereby increase the CBF. My question is, will the increased CBF not increase the ICP and hence reduce CPP?
Another thing is: Raised ICP will decrease CPP. Decreased CPP will reduce CBF, unless there is a compensatoric decrease in CVR aswell. But then why are patients hyperventilated when hyperventilation increases CVR?
The alternative would be not to hyperventilate patients. What would this cause? ICP would raise because of more blood intracranially, and therefore CPP and CBF would fall. But the CVR would fall too, increasing the CBF.
I am very confused! Is there something I have misunderstood? Any relevant comments appreciated.
Singh