Hey, was wondering if you future docs could help me understand a diabetes concept.
In FA endocrine, T1D is listed is strong HLA association (HLA-DR3/4) but also described as weak genetic predisposition and also polygenic.
T2D is listed as no HLA association with strong, polygenic genetic predisposition.
How could it possibly be a strong HLA association and a weak genetic predisposition?? Am I just having a brain-fart? Isn't strong HLA association by definition mean your children have a greater chance of having T1D and therefore it is a strong genetic predisposition?
In FA endocrine, T1D is listed is strong HLA association (HLA-DR3/4) but also described as weak genetic predisposition and also polygenic.
T2D is listed as no HLA association with strong, polygenic genetic predisposition.
How could it possibly be a strong HLA association and a weak genetic predisposition?? Am I just having a brain-fart? Isn't strong HLA association by definition mean your children have a greater chance of having T1D and therefore it is a strong genetic predisposition?