Can anyone help me with this questions with explanation? Many thanks in advance. A 6 yr old boy is brought to the physician by his parents b/c of premature sexual maturation. Lab studies show plasma testosterone level in the pubertal range, with low plasma gonadotropins and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfates (DHEA-S). Infusion of GnRH does not result in a rise in LH levels. Further evaulation shows that seminiferous tubules are not developed, but both testes are enlarged with Leydig cell hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?