Routine C Section?

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BLADEMDA

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A 29 year old female presents for a primary C section. Breech presentation. Elective schedule. No babies at home.

Labs are wnl except platelet count (yesterday) is 51,000. Patient has no PMH and no complaints. No history of bleeding or bruising. Normal BP and no protein in her urine. Previous platelet count from 3 months ago was 65,000.

CRNA and SRNA assigned to do the case. SRNA has never done a C Section and has lots of questions.

What is your approach to this case? Preop concerns? Labs? Anesthetic plan? Intraop plan?

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SRNA asks about the use of an LMA for this case. The patient is thin (120 pounds and 5'2"). SRNA thinks LMA supreme would be a great choice after giving premeds.

CRNA looks puzzled but smiles at the approach. Comments? SRNA says her grandmother used to mask all the women who got C sections without any problems.
 
Use it everywhere you use a mask and in places where you have been using an ET Tube.
ET tubes carry an inherent risk of patient trauma, from vocal cord damage to pharyngeal soft-tissue injury. Because of ease of insertion and reduced trauma, LMA™ airways have replaced ET tubes in many procedures. With its integrated drain tube and verifiable placement, the LMA Supreme™ is an even more effective alternative.
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Differential diagnosis for Thrombocytopenia in a Pregnant patient?

Approach?

What if morbidly obese is your approach different?

What are signs/symptoms of preeclampsia?

Is there a cutoff for Neuraxial? Spinal vs. CSE/Epidural?



Come on PGY1-PGY3 this is a good case. How about some responses?
 
Blade,

I'll jump in to start things...HELLP syndrome, differential diagnosis for pregnant patient's Thrombocytopenia...

Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low platelet count (thrombocytopenia).
Occurs in Preeclampsia.

Not sure of the rest, but I would think (GUESS) to choose an induction anesthetic that might help with BP generally off the bat (maybe propofol) versus something that may do the opposite (etomidate). This is a guess from shadowing Anesthesiologists doing heart cases that choose Etomidate over propofol for the opposite reasons (to keep BP up). But of course, I may be 100% wrong. I still try though... 😀

D712
 
Peripheral smear and liver enzymes please.


I could provide Pubmed studies and fill in the blanks but would prefer for YOU to elaborate to the younger members what you are LOOKING for in these tests. I appreciate a great answer but how about some more specifics and your thought process.

Blade
 
Blade,

I'll jump in to start things...HELLP syndrome, differential diagnosis for pregnant patient's Thrombocytopenia...

Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low platelet count (thrombocytopenia).
Occurs in Preeclampsia.

Not sure of the rest, but I would think (GUESS) to choose an induction anesthetic that might help with BP generally off the bat (maybe propofol) versus something that may do the opposite (etomidate). This is a guess from shadowing Anesthesiologists doing heart cases that choose Etomidate over propofol for the opposite reasons (to keep BP up). But of course, I may be 100% wrong. I still try though... 😀

D712

For a Pre-Med you get an A+ here. Of Course, there is much more to this case so stay tuned.
 
Honestly, you will encounter this type of patient in private practice. How will you deal with her? What is your thought process? What is your plan?
At what point does a GA become the preference over a Neuraxial technique?

Blade
 
I'm a MS4. Both tests I'm screening for HELPP syndrome. Peripheral smear I'm looking for schistocytes to query for hemolytic anemia. Liver enzymes will be elevated secondary ischemia in HELPP syndrome. I'm wanting to make sure this lady won't go into DIC. I think both the smear and liver enzymes would be decent screening tests that you would get the results back in a fairly speedy manner. I'm not sure about the mode of anesthesia with the information that I have. No LMA, that's for sure. ETT if you are going general.
 
I'm a MS4. Both tests I'm screening for HELPP syndrome. Peripheral smear I'm looking for schistocytes to query for hemolytic anemia. Liver enzymes will be elevated secondary ischemia in HELPP syndrome. I'm wanting to make sure this lady won't go into DIC. I think both the smear and liver enzymes would be decent screening tests that you would get the results back in a fairly speedy manner. I'm not sure about the mode of anesthesia with the information that I have. No LMA, that's for sure. ETT if you are going general.


Good answer.👍
 
Decreased platelet counts can be due to a number of disease processes:

[edit] Decreased production

[edit] Increased destruction

[edit] Medication-induced

Thrombocytopenia-inducing medications include:
  • Direct myelosuppression
  • Immunological platelet destruction
    • Drug binds Fab portion of an antibody. The classic example of this mechanism is the quinidine group of drugs. The Fc portion of the antibody molecule is not involved in the binding process.
    • Drug binds to Fc, and drug-antibody complex binds and activates platelets. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is the classic example of this phenomenon. In HIT, the heparin-antibody-platelet factor 4 (PF4) complex binds to Fc receptors on the surface of the platelet. Since Fc portion of the antibody is bound to the platelets, they are not available to the Fc receptors of the reticulo-endothelial cells, so therefore this system cannot destroy platelets as usual. This may explain why severe thrombocytopenia is not a common feature of HIT.
 
Often, a patient who develops HELLP syndrome has already been followed up for pregnancy-induced hypertension (gestational hypertension), or is suspected to develop pre-eclampsia (high blood pressure and proteinuria). Up to 8% of all cases present after delivery.
There is gradual but marked onset of headaches (30%), blurred vision, malaise (90%), nausea/vomiting (30%), "band pain" around the upper abdomen (65%) and paresthesia (tingling in the extremities). Edema may occur but its absence does not exclude HELLP syndrome. Arterial hypertension is a diagnostic requirement, but may be mild. Rupture of the liver capsule and a resultant hematoma may occur. If the patient gets a seizure or coma, the condition has progressed into full-blown eclampsia.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation is also seen in about 20% of all women with HELLP syndrome,[2] and in 84% when HELLP is complicated by acute renal failure.[3]
Patients who present symptoms of HELLP can be misdiagnosed in the early stages, increasing the risk of liver failure and morbidity.[4] Rarely, post caesarean patient may present in shock condition mimicking either pulmonary embolism or reactionary haemorrhage.

[edit] Diagnosis

In a patient with possible HELLP syndrome, a batch of blood tests is performed: a full blood count, liver enzymes, renal function and electrolytes and coagulation studies. Often, fibrin degradation products (FDPs) are determined, which can be elevated. Lactate dehydrogenase is a marker of hemolysis and is elevated (>600 U/liter). Proteinuria is present but can be mild.
A positive D-dimer test in the presence of preeclampsia has recently been reported to be predictive of patients who will develop HELLP syndrome.[5] D-dimer is a more sensitive indicator of subclinical coagulopathy and may be positive before coagulation studies are abnormal.[citation needed]

[edit] Classification

The platelet count has been found to be moderately predictive of severity: under 50,000/mm3 is class I (severe), between 50,000 and 100,000 is class II (moderately severe) and >100,000 is class III (mild). This system is termed the Mississippi classification.[6]

[edit] Pathophysiology

The exact cause of HELLP is unknown, but general activation of the coagulation cascade is considered the main underlying problem. Fibrin forms crosslinked networks in the small blood vessels. This leads to a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: the mesh causes destruction of red blood cells as if they were being forced through a strainer. Additionally, platelets are consumed. As the liver appears to be the main site of this process, downstream liver cells suffer ischemia, leading to periportal necrosis. Other organs can be similarly affected. HELLP syndrome leads to a variant form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), leading to paradoxical bleeding, which can make emergency surgery a serious challenge.
 
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1) Test results come back WNL. Normal WBC and Normal Liver Enzymes. Coags WNL. Now what?


2) What if the LFT's were elevated and the BP was mildly elevated 160/95? What would you do? Normal Coags.


A positive D-dimer test in the presence of preeclampsia has recently been reported to be predictive of patients who will develop HELLP syndrome.[5] D-dimer is a more sensitive indicator of subclinical coagulopathy and may be positive before coagulation studies are abnormal.[
 
1. Give platelets, CSE, proceed.
2. Give Platelets and FFP. FFP, platelets, and PRBCs on hold in OR. ETT.
 
All women who present with new-onset hypertension should have the following laboratory tests: complete blood count (CBC), serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) levels, serum creatinine, and uric acid. In addition, a peripheral smear, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels measured, and indirect bilirubin should be done if HELLP syndrome is suspected. While a coagulation profile (PT, aPTT, and fibrinogen) should also be evaluated, the clinical use of routine evaluation is unclear when the platelet count is 100,000 or more with no evidence of bleeding.35

While controversy exists over the threshold for elevated liver enzyme, the values proposed by Sibai et al (AST of >70 U/L and LDH of >600 U/L) appear to be the most widely accepted. Alternatively, values that are 3 standard deviations away from the mean for each laboratory value may be used for AST.36 The presence of schistocytes, burr cells, or echinocytes on peripheral smears, or elevated indirect bilirubin and low serum heptoglobin levels, may be used as evidence of hemolysis in diagnosing HELLP syndrome. The differential diagnosis for HELLP syndrome must include various causes for thrombocytopenia and liver failure such as acute fatty liver of pregnancy, hemolytic uremic syndrome, acute pancreatitis, fulminant hepatitis, systemic lupus erythematosus, cholecystitis, and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.

Other laboratory values suggestive of preeclampsia include elevation in hematocrit and a rise in serum creatinine and/or uric acid. While these laboratory abnormalities increase the suspicion for preeclampsia, none of these laboratory tests should be used to diagnose preeclampsia.

Laboratory values for preeclampsia and HELLP syndrome30,36

Renal
Proteinuria of >300 mg/24 h
Urine dipstick >1+
Protein/creatinine ratio >0.3*
Serum uric acid >5.6 mg/dL*
Serum creatinine >1.2 mg/dL

Low platelets/coagulopathy
Platelet count <100,000/mm3
Elevated PT or aPTT*
Decreased fibrinogen*
Increased d-dimer*

Hemolysis
Abnormal peripheral smear*
Indirect bilirubin >1.2 mg/dL*
Lactate dehydrogenase >600 U/L*

Elevated liver enzymes
Serum AST >70 U/L8
 
Thrombocytopenia is encountered in 7-8% of all pregnancies. The modern recognition of the condition is mainly attributable to automated CBC counts, which routinely include platelet counts. Historically, thrombocytopenia has been a cause for unnecessary, often invasive, additional testing, as well as cesarean deliveries.

Definition and Clinical Manifestations


Definition and severity

  • The reference range of platelets in nonpregnant women is 150,000-400,000/mcL.
  • Platelet counts are slightly lower during pregnancy due to accelerated destruction leading to younger, larger platelets.
  • The commonly used classification of thrombocytopenia severity in pregnancy is arbitrary and not necessarily clinically relevant.
    • Mild thrombocytopenia is 100,000-150,000/mcL.
    • Moderate thrombocytopenia is 50,000-100,000/mcL.
    • Severe thrombocytopenia is less than 50,000/mcL.
Manifestations

  • Occasional - Petechiae, ecchymoses, and nose and gum bleeding
  • Rare - Hematuria, gastrointestinal bleeding, intracranial bleeding
  • Bleeding associated with surgery is uncommon unless the platelet counts are lower than 50,000/mcL. Clinically significant spontaneous bleeding is rare unless counts fall below 10,000/mcL.
    • Most reports of spontaneous hemorrhage associated with thrombocytopenia have occurred in individuals diagnosed with leukemia.
 
Gestational Thrombocytopenia


Gestational thrombocytopenia (GT) is also known as pregnancy-induced, essential, benign, or incidental thrombocytopenia of pregnancy. Incidence

  • Incidence is 8% of all pregnancies.
  • GT accounts for more than 70% of cases of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy.
Pathophysiology
Pathophysiology is unknown but is thought to represent accelerated consumption of platelets.
Diagnosis

  • Usually, GT is detected incidentally on CBC, usually after late second trimester.
  • Similar to ITP, GT is a diagnosis of exclusion during pregnancy.
  • No diagnostic test exists to accurately distinguish GT from ITP.
  • Lescale (1996) evaluated 8 different platelet antibodies in 250 gravidas with thrombocytopenia (160 with presumed GT, 90 with ITP) to determine if any antibodies could distinguish the 2 conditions. Platelet-associated IgG was comparably elevated in the majority of women with GT (69.5%) and ITP (64.6%), P = 0.24. A significantly higher proportion of patients with ITP had indirect IgG compared to patients with GT (85.9% versus 60.3%, P <0.001), but significant overlap existed, limiting its clinical value. Antiplatelet antibody tests, either alone or in combination, cannot be used to distinguish ITP from GT.
Clinical manifestations

  • Mild, asymptomatic thrombocytopenia (counts usually >70,000/mcL) occurs in women with no prepregnancy history of low platelets or abnormal bleeding.
  • GT may occur in subsequent pregnancies, although the recurrence rate is unknown.
  • Platelet counts normalize within 2-12 weeks following delivery.
  • Burrows (1990) reported that all women with GT had normal or normalizing platelet counts by the seventh postpartum day.
Fetal/neonatal risks

  • Risk of fetal or neonatal thrombocytopenia is extremely low, with no fetal or neonatal bleeding complications reported.
  • Samuels (1990) evaluated 162 pregnant women and their infants with thrombocytopenia, 74 with presumed GT. No infant from a GT gravida had a platelet count less than 50,000/mcL or intracranial hemorrhage.
  • In Burrows' large 1993 study, 756 of 1027 women who were thrombocytopenic (73.6%) had GT. Only one infant had a platelet count less than 50,000/mcL, and this infant had trisomy 21 and congenital bone marrow dysfunction. He concluded that GT is the most frequent type of thrombocytopenia and poses no apparent risks for either the mother or infant at delivery.
Management considerations

  • Avoid antiplatelet antibody testing or fetal platelet determination.
  • Cesarean delivery should be reserved for obstetrical indications only.
  • Monitor maternal platelet counts periodically, watching for levels less than 50-70,000/mcL.
  • Antepartum anesthesia consultation should be obtained to discuss availability of regional analgesia.
  • Consider obtaining cord bloods to confirm normal infant platelet count.
  • Document return of maternal platelet count to normal levels after delivery.
 
CA-3s, Fellows and AAs please feel free to join in the discussion. Come on, you all have seen this type of patient before, right? Now, we can discuss the approach and your preference for the anesthetic.
 
You guys complain about LACK of clinical material on this website. Well, I am bringing you REAL WORLD cases that must be dealt with in PP. How about some participation?

We can all learn something from these case discussions. Nobody (not even me) has all the answers.

Blade
 
I had a patient last month who came in for induction and the platelet count was 81. Prenatal labs drawn earlier were all over 100. I rechecked the platelets later on in the day and they came back at 66. There were no signs of preeclampsia or PIH. I told the patient that an epidural would be unsafe. She labored and eventually had a C-section under GA. Everyone has their own cutoffs, but for me, the absolute lowest I am willing to go for a regional technique is 75 (higher when the problem is more than just a platelet number). Also, to invoke the wisdom of JPP, we shouldn't hesitate to do a GA for a C/S when it is indicated.
 
A 29 year old female presents for a primary C section. Breech presentation. Elective schedule. No babies at home.

Labs are wnl except platelet count (yesterday) is 51,000. Patient has no PMH and no complaints. No history of bleeding or bruising. Normal BP and no protein in her urine. Previous platelet count from 3 months ago was 65,000.

CRNA and SRNA assigned to do the case. SRNA has never done a C Section and has lots of questions.

What is your approach to this case? Preop concerns? Labs? Anesthetic plan? Intraop plan?

Is this patient in labor or is it a scheduled primary C/S? If scheduled, no reason to rush - repeat the labs and further work up (should have already been done if her platelet count 3 months earlier was 65k).

GA not a problem, and in fact, a neuraxial technique is contraindicated with this low platelet count. Our general cutoff is 100k.

Would NEVER electively consider an LMA of any kind in a C/S. I don't care what they do in Europe or what the various LMA companies claim. It's res ipsa loquitur-style malpractice in the US, and is indefensible if something bad happens.
 
You guys complain about LACK of clinical material on this website. Well, I am bringing you REAL WORLD cases that must be dealt with in PP. How about some participation?

We can all learn something from these case discussions. Nobody (not even me) has all the answers.

Blade
It's six hours from the time you made the OP till you posted this - and it's a holiday weekend, and for god's sake, there is still college football on ESPN tonight. 😉 It's a matter of priorities.
 
Blade, my brother, I respect you. You're tenacious. You've (usually) got a good point... but, man, you're exhausting sometimes.

Let me summarize it for all the n00bs:

THERE'S NO SUCH THING AS A "ROUTINE" CASE!

Do NOT get lulled into this thinking. Every case you do has it's own special circumstances and potential for disaster.

This type of thinking is what will ultimately separate you as a CONSULTANT IN ANESTHESIA and not just simply a technician.

Bank that.

-copro
 
Blade, my brother, I respect you. You're tenacious. You've (usually) got a good point... but, man, you're exhausting sometimes.

Let me summarize it for all the n00bs:

THERE'S NO SUCH THING AS A "ROUTINE" CASE!

Do NOT get lulled into this thinking. Every case you do has it's own special circumstances and potential for disaster.

This type of thinking is what will ultimately separate you as a CONSULTANT IN ANESTHESIA and not just simply a technician.

Bank that.

-copro

Yes, I know. The title of the thread was a pun. This case is anything but routine.
 
I had a patient last month who came in for induction and the platelet count was 81. Prenatal labs drawn earlier were all over 100. I rechecked the platelets later on in the day and they came back at 66. There were no signs of preeclampsia or PIH. I told the patient that an epidural would be unsafe. She labored and eventually had a C-section under GA. Everyone has their own cutoffs, but for me, the absolute lowest I am willing to go for a regional technique is 75 (higher when the problem is more than just a platelet number). Also, to invoke the wisdom of JPP, we shouldn't hesitate to do a GA for a C/S when it is indicated.

I have NO PROBLEM with your post or decision in this case. However, do you have any peer reviewed data to back that statement up? I know PP MD (A)'s that would put this patient to sleep in heart beat, period. Her airway is a Class 1 and that would be simple.

But, is a Neuraxial technique "safe"? If she begged to be awake would you do it? Why a cutoff of 75,000 for platelets? Any data? Is there a difference between and Epidural/CSE and a single shot spinal in this case?

Blade
 
Is this patient in labor or is it a scheduled primary C/S? If scheduled, no reason to rush - repeat the labs and further work up (should have already been done if her platelet count 3 months earlier was 65k).

GA not a problem, and in fact, a neuraxial technique is contraindicated with this low platelet count. Our general cutoff is 100k.

Would NEVER electively consider an LMA of any kind in a C/S. I don't care what they do in Europe or what the various LMA companies claim. It's res ipsa loquitur-style malpractice in the US, and is indefensible if something bad happens.


JWK,

You are incorrect about the Neuraxial technique. A low platelet count is a relative contraindication particularly if the patient has a long standing decreased count. In addition, Neuraxial must be better defined.
 
Rev Bras Anestesiol. 2009 Mar-Apr;59(2):142-53. Links

Regional anesthesia and non-preeclamptic thrombocytopenia: time to re-think the safe platelet count.

[Article in English, Portuguese]


Tanaka M, Balki M, McLeod A, Carvalho JC.
Mount Sinai Hospital, University of Toronto, Ontario, Canada.
BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES: Although regional anesthesia is widely used for pain control in obstetrics, it may not be appropriate for patients with thrombocytopenia due to the risk of neuraxial hematoma. There is no strong evidence to suggest the minimum platelet count that is necessary to ensure the safe practice of regional anesthesia. The purpose of this study was to review the safety of regional anesthesia in non-preeclamptic thrombocytopenic parturients at our institution over a 5-year period. METHODS: A retrospective chart review was performed in all the non-preeclamptic obstetric patients who delivered at our facility between April 2001 and March 2006, and had platelet counts < 100 x 10(9).L(-1) on the day of anesthesia. The etiology of the thrombocytopenia, type of anesthesia, mode of delivery and major anesthetic complications were noted. RESULTS: Seventy-five patients were identified, 47 of whom (62.6%) had received regional anesthesia. The etiology of their thrombocytopenia was immune thrombocytopenic purpura in 49 patients, gestational thrombocytopenia in 20 and other causes in 6 patients. Regional anesthesia was administered in 91.9% of the patients with platelet counts of 80 to 99 x 10(9).L(-1) and in 48.1% of the patients with platelet counts of 50 to 79 x 10(9).L(-1). None of the 11 patients with platelet counts below 50 x 10(9).L(-1) received regional anesthesia. There were no neurological complications. CONCLUSIONS: In our series, regional anesthesia was safely administered in pregnant patients with platelet counts between 50-79 x 10(9).L(-1). Our results are in keeping with other series in the literature. We suggest that in non-preeclamptic patients with stable platelet counts and no history or clinical signs of bleeding, the lower limit of platelet count for regional anesthesia should be 50 x 10(9).L(-
 
1: Anesth Analg. 1997 Aug;85(2):385-8. Links

Safe epidural analgesia in thirty parturients with platelet counts between 69,000 and 98,000 mm(-3).

Beilin Y, Zahn J, Comerford M.
Department of Anesthesiology, Mount Sinai School of Medicine, New York, New York, USA.
Regional anesthesia is a popular form of pain relief for the management of labor and delivery. Thrombocytopenia is considered a relative contraindication to the administration of regional anesthesia. Some authorities have recommended that an epidural anesthetic be withheld if the platelet count is <100,000 mm(-3). For the period of March 1993 through February 1996, we reviewed the charts of all parturients who had a platelet count <100,000 mm(-3) during the peripartum period. Eighty women met this criterion. Of these 80, 30 had an epidural anesthetic placed when the platelet count was <100,000 mm(-3) (range 69,000-98,000 mm(-3)), 22 had an epidural anesthetic placed with a platelet count >100,000 mm(-3) that subsequently decreased below 100,000 mm(-3), and 28 did not receive a regional anesthetic. We found no documentation of any neurologic complications in the medical records. We conclude that regional anesthesia should not necessarily be withheld when the platelet count is <100,000 mm(-3).
PMID: 9249118 [PubMed - indexed for MEDLINE
 
I am happy to provide more references on this topic of low platelet count if requested. However, since the studies are UNDERPOWERED for making wide scale recommendations here is my view:

1) Elective Epidural- My cut-off is 75-80,000. If you use 100,000 just to be safe in PP then fine. In addition, my cutoff is for a stable platelet count and not for patients that have falling count. Also, my number is for the healthy patient.

2) Spinal- I am willing to go lower on my platelet count provided the patient is healthy and the count is stable. My cutoff for a single shot spinal is 50,000. Spinal Anesthesia is believed to be less traumatic than Epidural placement.

Remember, this is my opinion based on experience and the published literature. I have no qualms about a GA for a C section. If I think there is any increased risk to the patient (like a falling platelet count which is very important) then there will be no neuraxial technique.

TEG is a great test for platelet function/coagulation. A normal MA on the TEG would be a great thing to know before sticking a needle in someone's back with a low platelet count.

http://books.google.com/books?id=mTiz0puI4rUC&pg=PA173&lpg=PA173&dq=spinal+anesthesia+in+the+pregnant+patient+with+low+platelet+count&source=bl&ots=q260Yvyyvp&sig=WX0_0wnrT2c7YAuucdMeXnYjkDI&hl=en&ei=P1GmSvLkD52NtgeIlPkE&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=9#v=onepage&q=spinal%20anesthesia%20in%20the%20pregnant%20patient%20with%20low%20platelet%20count&f=false (see page 173)
 
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Clot dynamics
The resultant hemostasis profile can be evaluated and individual points in the profile indicate specific parameters of patient hemostasis:
Clotting timeRThe period of time of latency from the time that the blood was placed in the TEG® analyzer until the initial fibrin formation. Clot kineticsKA measure of the speed to reach a specific level of clot strength.alphaMeasures the rapidity of fibrin build-up and cross-linking (clot strengthening)Clot strength MA, GA direct function of the maximum dynamic properties of fibrin and platelet bonding via GPIIb/IIIa and represents the ultimate strength of the fibrin clot.Hemostasis profileCICoagulation Index, which is a linear combination of the above parameters.Clot stabilityLY30Measures the rate of amplitude reduction 30 minutes after MA.






 
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I am happy to provide more references on this topic of low platelet count if requested. However, since the studies are UNDERPOWERED for making wide scale recommendations here is my view:

1) Elective Epidural- My cut-off is 75-80,000. If you use 100,000 just to be safe in PP then fine. In addition, my cutoff is for a stable platelet count and not for patients that have falling count. Also, my number is for the healthy patient.

2) Spinal- I am willing to go lower on my platelet count provided the patient is healthy and the count is stable. My cutoff for a single shot spinal is 50,000. Spinal Anesthesia is believed to be less traumatic than Epidural placement.

Remember, this is my opinion based on experience and the published literature. I have no qualms about a GA for a C section. If I think there is any increased risk to the patient (like a falling platelet count which is very important) then there will be no neuraxial technique.

TEG is a great test for platelet function/coagulation. A normal MA on the TEG would be a great thing to know before sticking a needle in someone's back with a low platelet count.

http://books.google.com/books?id=mT...gnant patient with low platelet count&f=false (see page 173)


For those that may not know the classic "dogma" in OB is that the platelet count must be greater than 100,000 for a Neuraxial block. That number of 100,000 is still used by many to determine if Regional is an option for the patient.
 
Regional anesthesia considerations
The presence of a coagulopathy is cited as a specific contraindication to the use of regional anesthesia due to concern for an epidural hematoma, which can result in serious neurologic complications. Only 2 cases of epidural hematoma have been reported in gravidas receiving epidurals in labor (one patient had gestational hypertension, as well as the lupus anticoagulant, and the other patient had an ependymoma). All other cases of nonpregnant epidural hematomas occurred in women receiving anticoagulants. Historically, anesthesia recommendations were that epidurals should be withheld if platelet counts were less than 100,000/mcL.
Three series have been published of gravidas undergoing regional analgesia (epidural or spinal) with unexplained, or initially unrecognized, thrombocytopenia at the time of the procedure (Rolbin, 1988; Rasmus, 1989; Beilin, 1997). The combined total was 105 women with platelet counts below 150,000/mcL; of these, 51 had platelet counts less than 100,000/mcL. No anesthesia complications were reported in these series. Nevertheless, some authors are still reluctant to advise epidurals for platelet counts below 100,000/mcL due to the small sample sizes in these studies.
Some anesthesiologists recommend a bleeding time prior to placing an epidural in a thrombocytopenic parturient. Bleeding time is influenced by various factors, has large interobserver variation, and cannot predict bleeding or transfusion requirements. This is not useful in assessing platelet function with ITP or GT, and its use should be discouraged.
 
I have NO PROBLEM with your post or decision in this case. However, do you have any peer reviewed data to back that statement up? I know PP MD (A)'s that would put this patient to sleep in heart beat, period. Her airway is a Class 1 and that would be simple.

But, is a Neuraxial technique "safe"? If she begged to be awake would you do it? Why a cutoff of 75,000 for platelets? Any data? Is there a difference between and Epidural/CSE and a single shot spinal in this case?

Blade

Blade,
Thanks for your reply. I admit that I don't have any hard evidence to back my practice up. I read the abstracts you posted above and as you admit, they aren't perfect but give some data. To me, 100K platelets is extremely safe (assuming coags are fine). On the same note, 50K seems very unsafe to me. Single shot spinals can be less traumatic than epidural placement, assuming you get CSF on the first pass. But how many times have you encountered a patient when multiple passes/levels were needed to get CSF? At what point does a difficult spinal carry as much risk as a straight-forward epidural?

For me, 75K splits the difference between what I consider to be very safe (100K) and very stupid (50K). I also like to see trends. A stable or rising platelet count is reassuring while a falling platelet count is troubling. That said, I would be more willing to place a single shot spinal with an iffy trend if the platelets are around 75-80K at time of placement than placing an epidural catheter under the same circumstances considering the catheter is going to stick around for several hours.
 
Tanaka M, Balki M, McLeod A, Carvalho JC.
Mount Sinai Hospital, University of Toronto, Ontario, Canada.

So, the authors above are "stupid" for advocating a cutoff of 50,000 for Neuraxial Anesthesia??

I respect your opinion to be conservative on Neuraxial Anesthesia on the Pregnant Patient. However, if a patient has a stable platelet count of 50,000 or more and is otherwise healthy it would seem reasonable to some to place a spinal using a small, non cutting needle.

Again, do you have any evidence that a single shot spinal in this subgroup of patients is dangerous when the platelet count is greater than 50,000?
 
"A Spinal technique is less traumatic than an Epidural technique and is preferred once the platelet count is under 70,000." page 138.


Spinal And Epidural Anesthesia Textbook (2007 edition)
Cynthia A. Wong (author)


 


Page 134 of the above book by Craig Palmer:

"Expert consensus suggests that a spinal needle is less traumatic than an epidural needle, and can be expected to incur a lower risk for an epidural hematoma. Therefore, the platelet count at which a spinal anesthetic is administered might be lower than the threshold for an Epidural anesthetic."
 
Tanaka M, Balki M, McLeod A, Carvalho JC.
Mount Sinai Hospital, University of Toronto, Ontario, Canada.

So, the authors above are "stupid" for advocating a cutoff of 50,000 for Neuraxial Anesthesia??

I respect your opinion to be conservative on Neuraxial Anesthesia on the Pregnant Patient. However, if a patient has a stable platelet count of 50,000 or more and is otherwise healthy it would seem reasonable to some to place a spinal using a small, non cutting needle.

Again, do you have any evidence that a single shot spinal in this subgroup of patients is dangerous when the platelet count is greater than 50,000?

Maybe "stupid" wasn't the best choice of words. What I meant to say was that less than 50K platelets is dangerous, more than 100K is definitely safe. My personal limit is 75K because that is what I am comfortable with from both a patient care and medico-legal perspective. Do I think that doing a neuraxial technique from 50-75K is crazy? No. Its just not a practice I am comfortable with.
 
all risk/benefit depending on the mother, symptoms, airway, etc...

Gotta head to work, post more later.

LMA supreme in cant intubate emergency c-section) not in an emergency. Could be used, just wouldnt be optimal.

re PLT. would be helpful to know trend of PLT count. If Im not sure I would probably head off to sleep all other things being equal or give PLT first prior to single shot spinal (assuming not C/hys risk, slow surgeon, etc.....) Patient may need PLT for C/S anyway. Again discuss risk/benefit of transfusion, regional, GA with pt and surgeon. proceed unless something ominous on H/P. If ITP, PLT transfusion not gonna be very effective, may need to optimize further for post op bleeding issues.
 
A 29 year old female presents for a primary C section. Breech presentation. Elective schedule. No babies at home.

Labs are wnl except platelet count (yesterday) is 51,000. Patient has no PMH and no complaints. No history of bleeding or bruising. Normal BP and no protein in her urine. Previous platelet count from 3 months ago was 65,000.

CRNA and SRNA assigned to do the case. SRNA has never done a C Section and has lots of questions.

What is your approach to this case? Preop concerns? Labs? Anesthetic plan? Intraop plan?

My contribution to this very nice clinical thread is just an idle question -

Was part of your actual management in this case to bitch-slap the OB who stealthily slipped this patient into the elective schedule despite knowing 3 months ago that she was thrombocytopenic? The OBs I've worked with have always been very good about sending non-routine patients to us well in advance for preop visits; we'd have had ample time to nail down the etiology of her low PLT count and come up with a data and evidence driven plan.

In this case, their failure to appropriately work up her thrombocytopenia or refer her to anesthesia weeks ago could result in her getting a totally unnecessary GA. I don't think that this obstetric management failure should be overlooked.
 
Maybe "stupid" wasn't the best choice of words. What I meant to say was that less than 50K platelets is dangerous, more than 100K is definitely safe. My personal limit is 75K because that is what I am comfortable with from both a patient care and medico-legal perspective. Do I think that doing a neuraxial technique from 50-75K is crazy? No. Its just not a practice I am comfortable with.

Well, I am comfortable with a SINGLE SHOT SPINAL ONLY provided there are no other medical conditions and the platelet count is stable.

After rechecking this patient's platelet count it was 52,000. The spinal was performed using a 25 gauge whitacre needle and the case proceeded uneventfully. The patient did fine with no problems.
 
My contribution to this very nice clinical thread is just an idle question -

Was part of your actual management in this case to bitch-slap the OB who stealthily slipped this patient into the elective schedule despite knowing 3 months ago that she was thrombocytopenic? The OBs I've worked with have always been very good about sending non-routine patients to us well in advance for preop visits; we'd have had ample time to nail down the etiology of her low PLT count and come up with a data and evidence driven plan.

In this case, their failure to appropriately work up her thrombocytopenia or refer her to anesthesia weeks ago could result in her getting a totally unnecessary GA. I don't think that this obstetric management failure should be overlooked.

Wish the world was perfect and McCain was President. Sh#t happens.
 
About 5 minutes after getting the single shot spinal the patient developed the following:

1) Nausea

2) Junctional rhythm with a rate of 38

4) BP=58/32

5) Sat=99%

What do you do now? Patient is still awake and talking but not feeling well. What is your plan?
 
Of the now 48 posts on this thread, you have made 32 of them. That's 2/3rds.

Dude... just... dude.

-copro
 
In the interest of decreasing the BLADEMDA : other posting ratio in this thread 🙂 I will throw a couple other things out there about thrombocytopenic parturients.

Diagnostic criteria for HELLP per Sibai are PLT <100K, AST >70, LDH >600 (or bili >1.2), and an abnormal peripheral smear. A metabolic panel will help rule out other causes of thrombocytopenia.

One should also give some thought to acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which can mimic HELLP and is bad news. It's characterized by prolonged PT/PTT, hypoglycemia, and unlike HELLP or pre-E, hypertension or proteinuria are not expected. Jaundice, nausea, vomiting, abd pain, encephalopathy, pruritis, all the stuff you'd expect from a bad liver. Polydipsia too, which is a distinguishing factor from other kinds of hepatitis.

TTP typically has greater hemolysis (schistos on smear) and thrombocytopenia, with fever & renal impairment common. Plasmapheresis.

Thrombocytopenia with ITP can be dramatic, but you don't see elevation in LFTs. Big platelets on a peripheral smear. Given this patient's count >50K right now, ITP is a lot less likely.

DIC would surely have other clues.

After ruling out the above, modest thrombocytopenia (>50K) without a bleeding history is probably benign gestational thrombocytopenia. These platelets are normal, if few in number, and I'd be comfortable with a smoothly placed spinal.


TEGs are neat but I've never once seen them appear anyplace outside of a written exam.

As for treatment and a plan ...

Corticosteroids are important for reducing platelet destruction in HELLP.

With ITP, give IVIg before platelets if possible or you might not get much out of transfusion.

AFLP needs delivery ASAP, even if the baby is preterm.

DIC is the endpoint of up to 20% of HELLP patients so the blood bank ought to be aware that you might be bogarting their services at some point.

In general, I would transfuse platelets >20K for a vaginal delivery, >50K for a section, and >75K for an epidural or spinal. I'm satisfied with >50K for a spinal if I'm confident it's just gestational thrombocytopenia.

About 5 minutes after getting the single shot spinal the patient developed the following:

1) Nausea

2) Junctional rhythm with a rate of 38

4) BP=58/32

5) Sat=99%

What do you do now? Patient is still awake and talking but not feeling well. What is your plan?

Bradycardia and hypotension immediately after a spinal should be treated aggressively. Epinephrine. Don't screw around with a fluid bolus or ephedrine.
 
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You guys complain about LACK of clinical material on this website. Well, I am bringing you REAL WORLD cases that must be dealt with in PP. How about some participation?

We can all learn something from these case discussions. Nobody (not even me) has all the answers.

Blade

Good grief!

You might get more of a discussion if you weren't the only one posting and you didn't expect 10 detailed answers to pop up 5min after your original post.

I like your cases - but engaging in the discussion is difficult when your constant posting just makes it feel like you're yelling at me.
 
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