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Step I Rx QID 1019
Started by dyspareunia
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it helps to see the question and answer choices 🙂
Because we learned it in class, so I know its true.
Plus it's not hard to reason out, AV node is the site with the highest delay, if there is a defect there you an expect the PR interval to lengthen.
Since Mobitz type-II involves random drops of QRS complexes not proceeded by changes in the PR interval you can assume there is no problem making it through the AV node, only a problem with the final conduction to the ventricles. Hence, His-Purkinje defect.
Im pretty sure it was explained better either in FA, or Rx though.
Not sure how much detail I can post without violating some rule, but the question was very short.. Not much other info than below.
75 year old man gets a pacemaker to treat his heart block. His ekg shows constant PR with QRS appearing randomly.
What's the abnormality?
AV abnormality
His-purkinje
Independent contraction of atria and ventricles
Retrograde ckndjction
SA abnormality
There's no explanation in FA or RX other than "his-purkinje is most commonly responsible for mobitz 2"
What you say makes sense though.
