Scope of practice question...

Started by GamecockPharmD
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Fill an Rx for an ED drug prescribed by an OD?

  • Yes

    Votes: 7 43.8%

  • No

    Votes: 9 56.3%
  • Total voters
    16
  • Poll closed .
GamecockPharmD

GamecockPharmD

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10+ Year Member
Pharmacist
An optometrist calls in a prescription for Levitra for a patient... Do you fill it? I'm still waiting to take NAPLEX/MPJE so it wasn't my problem, but it may be one day... Just curious as to what your opinions are. My opinion is no, but that was not the opinion of the pharmacist on duty.
 
yes...it dilates some vessels in eye to reduce glaucoma or some BS like that found in some literature sources written by kids


who cares...it increases script count?
 
i'm just worried about the legalities of it. the prescriber/patient relationship in this case is that the 2 are actually related. i really don't think it was for glaucoma. i guess the chances of being audited and finding something like that are slim since everyone is just going to look at controls. oh... and sex was included in the directions. so no... it wasn't for glaucoma.
 
Last edited:
nnguyenc said:
yes...it dilates some vessels in eye to reduce glaucoma or some BS like that found in some literature sources written by kids


who cares...it increases script count?
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No... totally out of scope. There are other rx out there that are more "standard of care". I would report Opt. It is definitely not okay in NYS.
 
It depends on your states laws. In Texas you have to be a therapeutic optometrist in order to prescribe. There is a very limited amount of drugs they are authorized to prescribe. There is a list on the Texas State Boards website. ED drugs are not on that list. So in Texas, no you should not dispense this prescription.
 
Being he's an optometrist and not an MD, I would not fill it. I think optometrists are limited to certain meds they can prescribe, and I doubt ED meds are part of their prescriptive authority.

Are practitioners allowed to prescribe for their co-workers? I remember reading somewhere that practitioners can prescribe for themselves as well as their family.
 
Priapism321 said:
What exactly would you be "documenting" to make it even remotely legitimate?
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I meant if the doc were able to give me some legit reason for prescribing it because of some off-label use I didn't know about, I would document that and fill it. I'd probably request the doc fax a study too (I worked PAs for awhile, similar procedure).

If the doc wasn't able to give me that info, I wouldn't fill it at all.
 
And to be honest, I don't even know the scope of optometrists in my state. I should probably figure that out. I work retail like once a month if that.
 
I've called on an OD once and that was for some triamcinolone ointment. I just wanted to make sure it was for an appropriate treatment. The person had a rash on their eye lids.
 
spacecowgirl said:
And to be honest, I don't even know the scope of optometrists in my state. I should probably figure that out. I work retail like once a month if that.
Click to expand...
hmm yeah, I just looked it up and that is definitely outside the scope of practice in my state. Guess I need to brush up on my law!
 
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