I hate math, so this is probably pretty simple...
In one of my kaplan books it has the formula: F-mg=ma
They rearrange it to: a=(F-mg)/m
Then it simplifies the formula to: a=F/m-g
HOW did they get from the second formula to the third? I can't figure it out, it's driving me nuts, and I know if someone doesn't explain it to me, I'll have to do something similar on my own mcat and get it wrong, which will cause me to get a lower score, then I won't get into med school, and all of my hopes and dreams will be shattered. Or maybe not, but someone please help. Thanks.
In one of my kaplan books it has the formula: F-mg=ma
They rearrange it to: a=(F-mg)/m
Then it simplifies the formula to: a=F/m-g
HOW did they get from the second formula to the third? I can't figure it out, it's driving me nuts, and I know if someone doesn't explain it to me, I'll have to do something similar on my own mcat and get it wrong, which will cause me to get a lower score, then I won't get into med school, and all of my hopes and dreams will be shattered. Or maybe not, but someone please help. Thanks.