Is anyone aware of any actual data that the usual dogma of "presence of prodrome" is more likely to exclude cardiogenic/arrhythmogenic syncope? This seems kinda made up - I have had a bunch of patients with a malignant arrhythmia without syncope and they certainly have exactly the same prodrome and symptoms that are supposed to make me feel better about that spell not coming from their heart. What is your practice with syncope where you work? Do you admit these for obs? Discharge with f/u? Get an echo in the ED?