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So I had a patient who had a drop syncope... essentially standing in church and then the next thing he knew, he was sitting down with his head down, does not recall what happened and no recollection of the event.
I call it syncope.
The guy is >80yo and has hx of htn but no vt/vf or chf. VSS on presentation, no chest pain, abd pain or headache to suggest other emergencies, neuro intact on my exam.
So, I did my usual, normal labs including UA and normal EKG w/ normal QT and normal trop. Called for admission, and the pcp (who admits) told me that the syncope happened 2 days ago... and there is nothing they need to do inpatient that was emergent. If it had happened today or yesterday, then he said ok w/ admit but if it's been 2 days, then they should do this as an outpatient work up. I called the cardiologist and he also said that it's been 2 days and that the patient should be worked up as outpatient.
I was just dumbfounded - this was a syncope patient w/o prodrome w/ obvious cardiac risk factors and over the age of 65... yeah, there was no vt/vf or sbp <90 per SF syncope rules, but all signs point to r/o cardiac arrhythmia (i.e. non sustained vtach) until proven otherwise. The 2 days delay in presentation does, I guess, diminish the emergent nature of the presentation and if something were to happen, then it should've happened.
But I was not trained that way and so I still pushed for admission which they did.
What do you guys think? Was I over-conservative? Would you have sent an 85yo home w/ syncope w/o prodrome simply because ED work up was negative and the event occurred 2 days prior?
Interested in hearing your thoughts... thanks!
I call it syncope.
The guy is >80yo and has hx of htn but no vt/vf or chf. VSS on presentation, no chest pain, abd pain or headache to suggest other emergencies, neuro intact on my exam.
So, I did my usual, normal labs including UA and normal EKG w/ normal QT and normal trop. Called for admission, and the pcp (who admits) told me that the syncope happened 2 days ago... and there is nothing they need to do inpatient that was emergent. If it had happened today or yesterday, then he said ok w/ admit but if it's been 2 days, then they should do this as an outpatient work up. I called the cardiologist and he also said that it's been 2 days and that the patient should be worked up as outpatient.
I was just dumbfounded - this was a syncope patient w/o prodrome w/ obvious cardiac risk factors and over the age of 65... yeah, there was no vt/vf or sbp <90 per SF syncope rules, but all signs point to r/o cardiac arrhythmia (i.e. non sustained vtach) until proven otherwise. The 2 days delay in presentation does, I guess, diminish the emergent nature of the presentation and if something were to happen, then it should've happened.
But I was not trained that way and so I still pushed for admission which they did.
What do you guys think? Was I over-conservative? Would you have sent an 85yo home w/ syncope w/o prodrome simply because ED work up was negative and the event occurred 2 days prior?
Interested in hearing your thoughts... thanks!