I have a different question about this same Berkeley Review problem: http://forums.studentdoctor.net/threads/tbr-g-chem-section-5-passage-1-q-7.1084624/
My question: Why did they use molarity for [HA] instead of moles of [HA]? Wouldn't there be .01 moles since .1 liters of .1 molar propanoic were used? .1L * .1M = .01 moles
Equation I'm referring to: pH=1/2pka - 1/2log[HA]
What am I missing?
My question: Why did they use molarity for [HA] instead of moles of [HA]? Wouldn't there be .01 moles since .1 liters of .1 molar propanoic were used? .1L * .1M = .01 moles
Equation I'm referring to: pH=1/2pka - 1/2log[HA]
What am I missing?