Tramadol

Started by fathead88
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fathead88

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Anyone else notice tramadol is now a 0.2 conversion to morphine?

I.e. 50 mg tramadol BID is 20 MME. I started noticing this on PDMP checks and it’s backed up by the CDC opioid conversion table?


So 2 tramadol a day is now a higher MME dose than oxycodone 5 BID?
 
Anyone else notice tramadol is now a 0.2 conversion to morphine?

I.e. 50 mg tramadol BID is 20 MME. I started noticing this on PDMP checks and it’s backed up by the CDC opioid conversion table?


So 2 tramadol a day is now a higher MME dose than oxycodone 5 BID?
Your math doesn't make sense.

2 x 0.2 =/= 20 MME.
 
That isn't how that works
This is on my phone during clinic so I must not be explaining properly.

A patient on tramadol 50 mg BID is now converting to a daily morphine equivalent of 20 mg. It used to be 10 mg.

A patient on oxycodone 5 mg bid equates to a daily morphine equivalent of 15.
 
then can you explain how that works?
I cannot explain how tramadol 50mg BID would equate to 20 MED.

The only thing that would make sense would be tramadol 50mg as a standard unit, not 1 mg of tramadol being equal to 0.2.
 
There was a time when MME was used to calculate analgesic equivalency of a drug. Somehow it has now been equated with risk for a medication related adverse event.