Advertisement - Members don't see this ad
I'm a little confused why we'd multiply the occurrence rates of 2 alleles found at different loci to find the expected probability of them appearing together.
Ex: If the frequency of allele A in a population is 0.3, and the frequency of allele B in that same population is 0.2, why would we expect their haplotype to be 0.06 (=0.3*0.2)?
I thought that with linkage equilibrium, we'd expect all possible haplotypes to have equal percentages (i.e, AB=Ab=aB=ab). In other words, wouldn't we expect the AB haplotype to have a frequency of 0.25?
Ex: If the frequency of allele A in a population is 0.3, and the frequency of allele B in that same population is 0.2, why would we expect their haplotype to be 0.06 (=0.3*0.2)?
I thought that with linkage equilibrium, we'd expect all possible haplotypes to have equal percentages (i.e, AB=Ab=aB=ab). In other words, wouldn't we expect the AB haplotype to have a frequency of 0.25?
