Valid Question

[TXneuronerd15]

Does anyone know why different states have different passing rates for the EPPP, and why one state bumps up the passing rate without knowing if they have adapted the state’s grad school curriculum to potentially meet this change? I ask because my score passed the exam requirement two years ago that was in TX, but now it’s not good enough because they want the same score for LPA’s as for Doctoral psychologists, whereas in other states you have to get the same score as an LP to be and independently practicing LPA( I agree with that), but can pass with a lower score if you only want to be supervised. Considering taking a job in either NC or AL only supervised due to my current score. Saying bye bye to Texas?

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[AbnormalPsych]

why one state bumps up the passing rate without knowing if they have adapted the state’s grad school curriculum to potentially meet this change?

That's not how it works.

 

[psych.meout]

I don't think the state licensing board is setting your grad program's curriculum.

 

[Sanman]

The state doesnt care about your grad school's curriculum. They set the rules and you need to meet them. Study, pass the test, and move on. If you need a job now, it is time to move.

 

[TXneuronerd15]

That isn’t how it works, but I find it amazing that they can just change the criteria with no stated rationale for doing so. I don’t just ask this to complain; I’d actually try to do something about it, if I could build a solid case. So, your program may have a high passing rate or a low one, either way let’s change the passing rate so now someone with less education has to do just as well as someone with a doctorate. Before they were different scores, to reflect the difference in education( logical). Now they’re the same; how is it that logical and why did they do it?

 

[psyche27]

That isn’t how it works, but I find it amazing that they can just change the criteria with no stated rationale for doing so. I don’t just ask this to complain; I’d actually try to do something about it, if I could build a solid case. So, your program may have a high passing rate or a low one, either way let’s change the passing rate so now someone with less education has to do just as well as someone with a doctorate. Before they were different scores, to reflect the difference in education( logical). Now they’re the same; how is it that logical and why did they do it?

In my state changing the criteria for anything is a multi year process. It’s not just something that a person wakes up one morning and decides to do.

 

[foreverbull]

Check the Texas state board’s meeting minutes which should be public, I think. Maybe that will shed some light on their rationale for changing the score cutoffs?

 

[psych.meout]

That isn’t how it works, but I find it amazing that they can just change the criteria with no stated rationale for doing so. I don’t just ask this to complain; I’d actually try to do something about it, if I could build a solid case. So, your program may have a high passing rate or a low one, either way let’s change the passing rate so now someone with less education has to do just as well as someone with a doctorate. Before they were different scores, to reflect the difference in education( logical). Now they’re the same; how is it that logical and why did they do it?

Aren't LPAs unsupervised in Texas? Your association is even bragging about it on the front page of their website:

TAPA Home

www.txapa.net

It also seems like the scope of practice for LPAs is quite similar to LPs:

The Texas Association of Psychological Associates represents psychology practitioners licensed at the master's level. Licensed Psychological Associates provide a full range of psychological services, including assessment, consultation, and therapy.

It makes a lot of sense to require similar scores if you are going to be unsupervised and have the same/similar scope of practice as someone with substantially more training.

 

[deleted343839]

Does anyone know why different states have different passing rates for the EPPP, and why one state bumps up the passing rate without knowing if they have adapted the state’s grad school curriculum to potentially meet this change? I ask because my score passed the exam requirement two years ago that was in TX, but now it’s not good enough because they want the same score for LPA’s as for Doctoral psychologists, whereas in other states you have to get the same score as an LP to be and independently practicing LPA( I agree with that), but can pass with a lower score if you only want to be supervised. Considering taking a job in either NC or AL only supervised due to my current score. Saying bye bye to Texas?

Why not just re-take the EPPP? Seems a less drastic solution than moving out of state.

Before they were different scores, to reflect the difference in education( logical). Now they’re the same; how is it that logical and why did they do it?

How is independent licensure for LPAs logical and why did they do it?

 

[TXneuronerd15]

As of around the late 1990’s, a vast majority of LPs only had a masters. Since then, the doctorate has become the staple. Fair enough, but since the exam is comprised of several content areas, whereas one’s ability to independently practice is measured by knowledge of ethics/ state laws and probably several other characteristics that are outside the scope of the exam, I still don’t see your rationale. Although the PhD allows one to practice, the main reason for it is to work in academia, not as a practitioner.




I’m not saying this isn’t ok with me, I’m questioning their process for changing the passing rate is all. TX requires an LPA to work underneath an LP for 3000 hours before practicing independently, and even afterit is normal to consult with an LP as needed.

 

[WisNeuro]

Although the PhD allows one to practice, the main reason for it is to work in academia, not as a practitioner.

This is patently and demonstrably, false.

 

[Fan_of_Meehl]

This is patently and demonstrably, false.

Absolutely. Though programs differ somewhat on emphasizing research vs. practice, the PhD in clinical psychology is an applied degree. Just check out any (most?) of the developed protocols/theories/approaches that have been ascendant in clinical practice over the past five or so decades (e.g., CPT, ACT, prolonged exposure, etc.)...it's not like the developers were all Psy.D.'s. I haven't done a head count but I'd be surprised if Ph.D.'s weren't in the majority here.

 

[WisNeuro]

Absolutely. Though programs differ somewhat on emphasizing research vs. practice, the PhD in clinical psychology is an applied degree. Just check out any (most?) of the developed protocols/theories/approaches that have been ascendant in clinical practice over the past five or so decades (e.g., CPT, ACT, prolonged exposure, etc.)...it's not like the developers were all Psy.D.'s. I haven't done a head count but I'd be surprised if Ph.D.'s weren't in the majority here.

Not too mention the fact that, unless the trend reversed this year, PhD applicants have more supervised clinical experience.

 

[AcronymAllergy]

I’m not saying this isn’t ok with me, I’m questioning their process for changing the passing rate is all. TX requires an LPA to work underneath an LP for 3000 hours before practicing independently, and even afterit is normal to consult with an LP as needed.

Your question might be best answered by looking through the TX state board's minutes, announcements, etc. Reasons for these types of changes can often be just as much political as they are practical/sensible. Thus far, it doesn't seem like anyone here is familiar with the rationale (not yet, anyway).

 

[psych.meout]

As of around the late 1990’s, a vast majority of LPs only had a masters.

Source?

Although the PhD allows one to practice, the main reason for it is to work in academia, not as a practitioner.

Just wrong. This isn't even true for most clinical science-oriented programs.

I’m not saying this isn’t ok with me, I’m questioning their process for changing the passing rate is all. TX requires an LPA to work underneath an LP for 3000 hours before practicing independently, and even afterit is normal to consult with an LP as needed.

So, you're insinuating that this change is unnecessary due to the minimum hours requires for LPA licensure and consultations with LPs being ubiquitous after licensure?

Texas Behavioral Health Executive Council

www.tsbep.texas.gov

Texas requires 3500 hours for LPs. Again, you're talking about licensure for LPAs that has an ostensibly comparable scope of practice to LPs. It's only fitting that independently practicing LPAs should have the same requirements for licensure as LPs, though that assumes one accepts that LPAs should be allowed to independently practice or have a similar scope to LPs in the first place.