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- May 25, 2005
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A few months ago I posted on here asking a variant of the MD vs. DO question. One of the more helpful responses referred me to Norman Gevitz's book, DOs: osteopathic medicine in America. I just finished reading it and while parts of it were pretty boring, I think it should be nearly required reading for people applying to allopathic or osteopathic programs.
Towards the end of the book Gevitz makes an argument that DOs have two choices: try to assimilate and blend in with MDs, or try to distinguish themselves. He explains why the first option is bad - and I agree: the historic differences between the two letters "DO" and "MD" will always prevent the public from really believing that the two are equal. The second option is to highlight the differences between DOs and MDs, and try to carve out a niche that's slightly different. Gevitz argues that DOs could make an argument that they're better than MDs in certain ways, while maintaining that there's obviously plenty of overlap. He points out that Americans spend millions on "alternative" medicine, so they clearly value choice and might respond well to such a distinction.
Judging by past MD vs. DO discussions on this board, it appears that people prefer the first option of assimilation (i.e., practically every response from DOs/pre-DOs is that the two are basically the same). Why is that? Wouldn't accentuating the differences, however subtle, make more sense professionally?
Towards the end of the book Gevitz makes an argument that DOs have two choices: try to assimilate and blend in with MDs, or try to distinguish themselves. He explains why the first option is bad - and I agree: the historic differences between the two letters "DO" and "MD" will always prevent the public from really believing that the two are equal. The second option is to highlight the differences between DOs and MDs, and try to carve out a niche that's slightly different. Gevitz argues that DOs could make an argument that they're better than MDs in certain ways, while maintaining that there's obviously plenty of overlap. He points out that Americans spend millions on "alternative" medicine, so they clearly value choice and might respond well to such a distinction.
Judging by past MD vs. DO discussions on this board, it appears that people prefer the first option of assimilation (i.e., practically every response from DOs/pre-DOs is that the two are basically the same). Why is that? Wouldn't accentuating the differences, however subtle, make more sense professionally?