Why is codeine CII and codeine/apap CIII?

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Because it's the law.

I think the logic behind that (and also why pure hydrocodone is a CII but Norco is CIII) is that the opioid has been mixed with something that would limit people from taking too much. Take a handful of Tylenol 3's and you'll wreck your liver. Addicts (hopefully) know this.
 
Hydrocodone follows the same rules. Solo product is CII, combo with apap is CIII. Unlikely people will worry about their liver and decide not to abuse the product.
 
I know people rarely read the laws these days but they have limits on amounts that classify into a certain schedule.

Tylenol #3's theoretical dose is limited by the APAP in it.
 
Don't forget schedule V codeine-containing cough syrups. It's all about the amount of codeine per pill (or per 100ml of liquid). Basically, it's about the amount of pure codeine a person can get a hold of at once as a result of a typical prescription.
 
I see. The amount of codeine in its own tablets and in codeine/APAP is the same. It's the APAP that limits the max you can take, for those that think of their liver.
 
If you are interested in controlled substance scheduling and all the arguments for and against a certain schedule for a certain substance, two great places to look up info are the Federal Register where the DEA publishes proposed scheduling (and asks for comments and then publishes its final determination) for every new molecular entity with potential for abuse, and the FDA Advisory Committee Meeting reports - there have been a lot of meetings on the subject i particular in 2008-2010 timeframe. And I have attended pretty much all of them. :laugh:
 
You are living in a prohibition era, of course the laws don't make sense.
 
Because the Acetaminophen limit of cod/apap limits the amount of codeine that can be consumed/abused.
 
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