Why never vicoprofen?
Started by npage148
D
deleted205891
Well, narcs are already pretty GI-irritating. Adding an NSAID probably doesn't help the situation. But I agree that I would still imagine more of it being used more...probably a bit of a marketing thing.
I can see the gi thing but usually the patient also has a script for IBU or is told to take OTC IBU.
We see it infrequently. Most patients who have liver issues are written oxycodone or plain hydrocodone (which I do think is not even available anymore, but they keep writing for it!).
I give vicoprofen for kidney stones.
Seems like a lot of older patients would benefit more from the APAP formulation since there is less GI irritation, is probably safer in patients with OA associated pain, less impact on GFR, and relatively speaking... Fewer interactions. The FDA limiting the APAP content to 325 mg or less will help with hepatotoxicity, too. Physicians like to go from APAP to tramadol it would seem, too... Or only try one NSAID rather than trying a few. So idk I'm sure it could have a place in therapy but I don't normally see Rx strength ibuprofen scripts with Vicodin/norco scripts either.
They should just eliminate the APAP and IBU formulation and sell it as pure hydrocodone.
But then it would be a c-II
I dispense vicoprofen for one of my pts on workers comp. Not many docs even knows it exists.
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I remember one customer who was on it long-term, but most of the RXs I've seen were from dentists.
It happens anyway in NY on February 23.
Isn't it still brand name only?
First:
There are no formulations of "Pure" Hydrocodone. You can get the Hycodan generic which contains subtherpeutic amounts of an antimuscarinic to prevent IV abuse. It's really the reason there is APAP in formulations.
Secondly, to answer the OP, it's because the amount of Ibuprofen is too low to be meaningful. Remember, the OTC dose is 400mg. So what good does the 200mg do? They should either make it 7.5/400 or 5/200.
There are no formulations of "Pure" Hydrocodone. You can get the Hycodan generic which contains subtherpeutic amounts of an antimuscarinic to prevent IV abuse. It's really the reason there is APAP in formulations.
Secondly, to answer the OP, it's because the amount of Ibuprofen is too low to be meaningful. Remember, the OTC dose is 400mg. So what good does the 200mg do? They should either make it 7.5/400 or 5/200.
D
deleted205891
Well, Percocet is 5/325, also with a low dose of APAP. 325mg of APAP really isn't very effective either.
Whatever happened to Zohydro (I think that's what it was going to be called)?
I agree, the APAP is worthless unless you double up to two tablets except for the fact that the APAP keeps you from injecting it IV.
Apap is there to prevent you from overdosing on it and to limit the number of doses per day.
Maybe you're confusing dose with strength?
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Why never combunox?
Now that it's generic I agree!
