- Joined
- Oct 1, 2009
- Messages
- 852
- Reaction score
- 116
Can one of y'all help me out? I had a pharmacist friend a long time ago tell me that there's practically no difference between the different zofran formulations as even the ODT requires you to swallow the saliva for it to enter systemic circulation. He pulled something up at the time to show me. Recently I had that challenged, and all I can find are a few papers stating that you do get sublingual/buccal absorption with the ODT and faster peak systemic concerntration. Asked a pharmacist I work with and she didn't know.
Is the truth a combination of GI and sublingual absorption?
Thanks
Is the truth a combination of GI and sublingual absorption?
Thanks