So I think it is...I just did NBME 2 and it had 1 biostats q on it (SN and SP).
Shield your eyes if you haven't done any of the NBME's yet - I have some q's I'd like to bounce off others - my test is this friday and really don't have time to look all of this up although I'm trying to... thanks in advance!!!
"which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for perioperative MI in this patient"
A. age
B. ECG findings (five PVCs/min, no ischemic changes)
C. Hx of CABG
D. Hx of HTN
E. Hx of smoking
F. MI w/i past 6 mos
I put D and it was wrong.
The revised cardiac risk index is what we generally use for perioperative evaluation. I like to remember it with the mnemonic RISCCI (pronounced "risky"). Risk of surgery, Insulin use, Stroke hx, CHF hx, Creatinine >2.0, Ischemic sx. Based on this and without the vignette, I would say 'F' is the right answer as that denotes ischemia. My guess is the vignette showed the CABG was awhile ago.
HIV+. CD4 is 110. Toxo ab's + ; hep B sAB +. which of the following is the most appropriate next step to assess patients risk for illness related to opportunistic infections?
a. PPD
B. sputum cytology
c. urine CMV ag
D. stool culture of MAI
E. CXR
I put E cuz I was thinking of PCP but I kinda knew it was probs wrong. Is it PPD? I just thought CD4 had nothing to do with PPD.
Hard to say without vignette. Assuming the question was simply going after the basic screening workup for a new HIV dx, the answer is A. Since they told you about toxo and Hep B serology, I think this is probably where they were going. CXR says nothing about future risk; ditto for MAI cx. No clue why they would want sputum cytology so probably just a distractor. Other possible right answers: RPR, urine chlamydia/gon pcr, etc.
37 yo with 2 day hx of abd cramps and diarrhea. Vomited blood 2x. takes ibuprofen for knee pain. appears pale. is afebrile, pulse 130, RR 22, BP 11/70. lungs are CTAB. abd soft and nt. stool is dark and tarry and test for occult blood is positive. two liters of 0.9% saline are administered.
HCt 18%
Leuk's 6200
Platelets 250k
PT 12
PTT 35
the most appropriate next step in management is administration of which of the following?
a. given another 2l of nml saline
b. ffp
c. h2-blocker
d. octreotide
e. prbc's
I put d. but is the answer c?
Just eyeballing it the pt is severely volume depleted 2/2 bleeding ulcer. They already gave 2L. Next step is most likely to give PRBCs (choice E).
after 6 hours of chest pain, a 76 year old man collapses at home. in the ed, a diagnosis of acute anterior wall MI is made. Pulse 104, SBP is 80. ashen gray and has clammy skin. Diffuse b/l pulm crackles are heard. Heart tones are muffled and s3 is audible. WHich of the following is the most likely cuase of his hypotension?
a. 3 degree av block
b. dec'd intravas vol
c. dec'd myocardial contractility
d. dec'd ventricular filling p
e. pulm edema
is it B? I put e.
This patient has cardiogenic shock 2/2 MI and maybe sHF. Answer is C. Definitely not a volume issue; if anything, the bl crackles suggest volume overload.
15 year old girl comes to physician because of a 2 week history of intermittent, fleeting pain under her L breast. She has had no cough, Nausea, or SOB. Her uncle and dad had MI's age 40 and age 38. Afebrile, pulse 96, RR 25, 120/74. Lung CTAB. Cardiac exam shows normal S1 and s2 and midsystolic click. There is no Chest wall tenderness. Pulse ox on room air is 96^. ECG is normal.
A. give BBlocker
b. outpt stress test
c. reassurance
d. sublingual ntg
Is the answer C? I put stress test...I wanted to see ECHO but that wasn't a choice. I was concerned about HOCM.
Patient sounds like she has MVP. HOCM does not have a midsystolic click. Usually I would say reassurance, especially if it were only exam findings without s/sx. Here she has Sx, exam finding, tachy-ish, and no chest wall tenderness. I would probably start her on a BB (choice A).
Also sorry to admit this but I forgot how many cm below the costal region a spleen can be palpated before it can be called "enlarged"?