I think I understand your argument better now. The main issue at hand appears to be an equivocation on the term 'advantage.' Like in many passionate arguments, both sides appear to be using different definitions for a key term essential to the understanding of the debate. And, like in many passionate arguments, I would bet both parties will realize they agree with each other once we have figured out what each party means when they say 'advantage.'
When I use 'advantage,' I mean a boost given to someone for a difference in a specific category, everything else being equal. For example, I would say someone with a 38 MCAT has an advantage over someone with a 30 MCAT in admissions because in the category of MCATs a higher score is more desirable than a lower score to most ADCOMs, everything else being equal. Similarly, I would say that someone who is an URM has an advantage over someone who is White or Asian in admissions because in the category of race, due to affirmative action programs, an URM is more desirable than White or Asian to most ADCOMs, everything else being equal.
What is important to realize here is that nowhere in this argument do I judge whether or not these 'advantages' are fair or unfair. I am aiming for objectivity only.
When you use 'advantage,' you mean better odds for the achievement of some goal in the comparison of two groups. For example, applicants with 3.00 - 3.19 GPAs (19.8% acceptance
rate) do not have an advantage over applicants with 3.80 - 4.00 GPAs (72.2% acceptance rate) in medical school admissions. Importantly, applicants from these groups may have other differences in application components not defined by the group. For example, one could contend that a higher GPA is correlated with a higher MCAT score. Regardless, the percentages are as they are. Now, if for whatever reason ADCOMs decided this cycle that those with a GPA from 3.00 - 3.19 were more desirable than those with a GPA from 3.80 - 4.00, everything else
not being equal, the acceptance rate for the lower GPA group would rise. The lower GPA group, however, also has a lower average MCAT score than the higher GPA group, and the ADCOMs still prefer higher MCAT scores. Due to the interaction of these two different factors, among others, the overall acceptance rate for the 3.00 - 3.19 GPA group might only rise to 60.0%, still lower than the acceptance rate of the 3.80 - 4.00 GPA group.
By your definition, this group would still not have an advantage over the 3.80 - 4.00 group because their odds of admission are still lower than the other group's. By my definition, an abstract member of the lower GPA group, everything else being equal, would have an advantage over an abstract member of the higher GPA group, everything else being equal, because the members of the lower GPA group have given a boost over the high GPA group by ADCOMs. Again, the judgement over whether this boost is deserved or not is irrelevant to the definition of the terms.
With that being said, I think everyone will agree that with your definition of 'advantage' URM applicants certainly do not have an advantage over White or Asian applicants. With my definition of advantage, I think it is reasonable given affirmative action programs (complete with their flaws) to say that URM applicants do indeed have an advantage over White applicants (again,
everything else being equal). Aside from your argument where you speculate that URM applicants on average have better activities, LoRs, personal statements, and interviews, I think you agree with me on this point given this quotation in response to what I previously said about the existence of racially based affirmative action programs:
So maybe we all agree after all once terms have been elucidated. However, I still cringe at your definition of 'advantage,' especially if you are trying to use it to justify affirmative action policy. Though I think plenty of good arguments exist for AA, I do not think this maneuvering of statistics is one of them. You could use the same argument to justify any boost given to any group whose acceptance rate is lower than some other group's, so long as their acceptance rate remains lower afterwards due to differences in other correlated categories which factor into admissions. As already illustrated, you could justify a boost given to a group with low GPAs agove a group with high GPAs in this way, assuming other factors like average MCAT scores restrained their acceptance rate to one still under the high GPA group.
You can quickly see how this type of argumentation becomes absurd, so I will not barrage you with more examples. Maybe you never even intended the argument I have credited to you. If not, the thread states nothing more than what you yourself simplified:
I doubt anyone disagrees with this statement, but I do not see how it contributes to a discussion on affirmative action aside from being a casual observation that even with racially based preferences in admissions URM applicants still do not achieve similar acceptance rates to medical schools as their peers, presumably due to significantly lower statistics on average.
These lower scores
might be purely explained away given biases introduced from higher representations of low-income families within the URM pool. To determine whether this is the case, a statistical comparison between low-income ORM and low-income URM would need to be displayed. Even then, other factors like racism, written and verbal components of the applications, and psychological patterns might contribute to the discrepancies. However, given that medical schools do not claim to equalize due to these factors, but rather to equalize based on racial proportions (perhaps as an imperfect and easily executed compromise), the statement that URM applicants have an advantage of the type I defined is probably true, even if these same applicants do not appreciate an advantage of the type you defined.
Regardless, explaining
why a certain group ought to have an advantage and explaining
whether a certain group has an advantage are two very different things. Even referencing socioeconomics as an explanatory tool contains within it the assumption that applicants from low-income families
ought to received a
justified boost in admissions. Do low-income applicants have an advantage over high-income applicants, everything else being equal, if ADCOMs have indeed adopted this philosophy? The answer, again, is 'yes' if you use my definition. Perhaps 'no' with yours.