I've heard it both ways, that's the reason why I've asked. We actually recently had a repeat c-section patient who had a spinal the first time, due to urgency of the section, who did fine afterwards. The time she came in (and I saw her) we elected to do an epidural with surgical-level dosing. I asked my attending at the time why not re-do a spinal since she didn't have a problem the first time, and he stated the above reasons already mentioned. I did look it up, and the data seems a bit speculative to me.
The problem, I think, is the waxing/waning nature of MS. If you give a spinal to a patient, and then they immediately have an exacerbation, you're likely to blame the spinal. There could be an entirely different peri-pregnancy mechanism to this. And, I think the mechanistic explanation (direct nerve injury from denuded central axons) is a bit weak.
So, I'd tend to agree with MilitaryMD on this one. If the patient understands the risk, then it's probably okay to proceed with intrathecal. And, you don't run into the problem of failed/inadequate epidural mid-section necessitating GA. Of course, I just have an (indirect) "N" of one. IOW, just my opinion.
-copro