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SaintJude

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Jan 4, 2012
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Pseudo-discrete...kind of a logic question


134. A man is treated with low does of an estrogen analogue to destroy an estrogen-responsive adrenal tumor. Compared to an age-matched control (no estrogen treatment) this patient's chances of developing osteoporosis will most likely be:

approximately the same.

I don't understand.
 

TinaBina22

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Jan 8, 2012
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Because the passage states that estrogen withdrawal in menopause could be responsible for osteoporosis. Men don't have this estrogen withdrawal....so the man has the same chance of getting osteoporosis as the control.
 

SaintJude

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How/where does this passage suggest "estrogen withdrawal"?

Although all individuals (male and female) steadily lose 0.5% to 1.0% of bone mass after year after the age of 40, this decline is accelerated in postmenopausal women, who show a loss of 2 to 3% per year for the 8 to 10 years immediately following menopause. They then revert to the slower rate of loss...The accelerated postmenopausal bone in loss in women appears to be directly linked to estrogen deficiency, although the exact mechanism is unknown.
 
Last edited:

MrNeuro

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i think the answer that aamc provides is bogus for this one in that the question is just asking about the ODDS OF GETTING osteoporosis passage states that ALL INDIVIDUALS will lose bone mass at some point so his odds are the same...
 
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SaintJude

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i think the answer that aamc provides is bogus for this one in that the question is just asking about the ODDS OF GETTING osteoporosis passage states that ALL INDIVIDUALS will lose bone mass at some point so his odds are the same...

Thank you that makes much more sense.
 
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