ACFD elegibility exam- question & answer discussion

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liwanag

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Hi everyone!

I have taken the EE in May this year and a bit disappointed with my 80% score. So, i will give it another try this September. Those of you who have taken the exam and planning to take it again, let's share those questions that we have remembered and discuss the answers thru private e-mail.

my e-mail add: [email protected]

thank you and goodluck
 
Same question I posted on a different thread.

This question is taken from 2004 Canadian EE exam. It is pretty easy but when I saw the 2006 paper I got a bit confused.

Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis?
a) loss of stippling
b) gingival hyperplasia
c) bleeding on probing
d) increasing probing depth

1) a,b,c
2) a and c
3) b and d
4) d only
5) all of above

I was gonna go with E but then i saw this question with a small change

Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis?
a) loss of stippling
b) gingival hyperplasia
c) decreased pocket depth
d) bleeding on probing

1) a,b,c
2) a and c
3) b and d
4) d only
5) all of above

Now im a bit confused. The only answer can be all of the above because "a" and "d" are definately true. But how can gingivitis decrease pocket depth? I would assume it increases probing depth because of the increase swelling/size. What do you guys think?

For both of above question all of the above is right choice.
As Gingivitis can increase or decrease probing depth...

Correct me if i am wrong
Thnks
 
For an otherwise healthy patient, with an acute localized periodontal abscess, initial treatment must include
A. scaling and root planing.👍
B. occlusal adjustment.
C. prescription of an antibiotic.
D. prescription of an analgesic.

what about drainage ???


The most likely cause of tooth loss following a tunneling procedure to provide complete access for a mandibular Class III furcation involvement is
A. root caries.👍
B. root sensitivity.
C. pulpal involvement.
D. recurrent pocketing

since the lesion is localized scaling and root planing is the best ans.
drainage can be obtained by scaling and root planing through the periodontal pocket.

what do u think guys?
+pity+:banana::bow:
thanks
 
For both of above question all of the above is right choice.
As Gingivitis can increase or decrease probing depth...

Correct me if i am wrong
Thnks



for 1 q the ans is all of the above since all of them are signs of gingivitis

for q 2 ans is b&d always occur in gingivitis
since loss of stippling is not always a sign of gingivitis, it can also occur in healthy gingiva.

what do u think?
 
for 1 q the ans is all of the above since all of them are signs of gingivitis

for q 2 ans is b&d always occur in gingivitis
since loss of stippling is not always a sign of gingivitis, it can also occur in healthy gingiva.

what do u think?

This thing is written in dental decks... But That is not right according to "glickman's Clinical pariodontics" and even clinical practice.... As loss of stippling is very important sign of gingivitis...
 
A few more questions

Pregnancy Epulis has what histologically?
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen

Phenytoin enlargement has what histologically
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen

Serial extractions are contraindicated in
a) class II
b) normal overjet
c) normal overbite
d) crowding

Sulcular Epithelium (pick as many as true)
a) can be ulcerated
b) is permeable to bacteria
c) can undergo regeneration and degradation
d) acts as a barrier

Arrangement of Principle fibres of the PL are influenced mainly by
a) cementum
b) alveolar bone
c) occlusion
d) tooth morphology
 
A few more questions

Pregnancy Epulis has what histologically?
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen
- i think increased endothelial cells

Phenytoin enlargement has what histologically
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen 👍not sure

Serial extractions are contraindicated in
a) class II👍
b) normal overjet
c) normal overbite
d) crowding

Sulcular Epithelium (pick as many as true)
a) can be ulcerated
b) is permeable to bacteria
c) can undergo regeneration and degradation
d) acts as a barrier
- all of the above

Arrangement of Principle fibres of the PL are influenced mainly by
a) cementum
b) alveolar bone
c) occlusion👍
d) tooth morphology

pls correct me if i'm wrong

thanks for the questions...+pity+:banana::corny:
 
A few more questions

Pregnancy Epulis has what histologically?
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen 🙂

Phenytoin enlargement has what histologically
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen 🙂

Serial extractions are contraindicated in
a) class II🙂
b) normal overjet
c) normal overbite
d) crowding

Sulcular Epithelium (pick as many as true)
a) can be ulcerated🙂
b) is permeable to bacteria
c) can undergo regeneration and degradation🙂
d) acts as a barrier

Arrangement of Principle fibres of the PL are influenced mainly by
a) cementum
b) alveolar bone
c) occlusion🙂
d) tooth morphology


correct me if im wrong........
 
19. causes hairy tongue which is (are) scientifically proven? (pick many)
1. candida
2. mouth rinses
3. hairy leukoplakia - Eipstein barr virus
4. head and neck radiation

This questions is repeated from earlier in the thread with lots of different answers.
I think 2 and 4 are true cause they were referenced from these sites:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_hairy_tongue
Some of these factors include poor oral hygiene, tooth loss (because their soft diet does not allow for normal desquamation from rough food scraping the tongue), chronic or extensive use of antibiotics, and radiation treatments to the head and neck.

http://www.mayoclinic.com/health/black-hairy-tongue/HQ00325
Regular use of mouthwashes containing oxidizing agents, such as peroxide, or astringent agents, such as witch hazel or menthol


Cant find anything saying Candida and hairy leukoplakia. The answer must be 2&4. Anyone else agree?
 
19. causes hairy tongue which is (are) scientifically proven? (pick many)
1. candida
2. mouth rinses
3. hairy leukoplakia - Eipstein barr virus
4. head and neck radiation

This questions is repeated from earlier in the thread with lots of different answers.
I think 2 and 4 are true cause they were referenced from these sites:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_hairy_tongue
Some of these factors include poor oral hygiene, tooth loss (because their soft diet does not allow for normal desquamation from rough food scraping the tongue), chronic or extensive use of antibiotics, and radiation treatments to the head and neck.

http://www.mayoclinic.com/health/black-hairy-tongue/HQ00325
Regular use of mouthwashes containing oxidizing agents, such as peroxide, or astringent agents, such as witch hazel or menthol


Cant find anything saying Candida and hairy leukoplakia. The answer must be 2&4. Anyone else agree?

thanks for the link. agree w/ u...
 
hi chinabuffet,
what do you think w/ my ans to your questions?

Pregnancy Epulis has what histologically?
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen
- i think increased endothelial cells

Phenytoin enlargement has what histologically
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen 👍not sure

Serial extractions are contraindicated in
a) class II👍
b) normal overjet
c) normal overbite
d) crowding

Sulcular Epithelium (pick as many as true)
a) can be ulcerated
b) is permeable to bacteria
c) can undergo regeneration and degradation
d) acts as a barrier
- all of the above

Arrangement of Principle fibres of the PL are influenced mainly by
a) cementum
b) alveolar bone
c) occlusion👍
d) tooth morphology




pls correct me if i'm wrong

thanks for the questions...+pity+:banana::corny:
 
hi chinabuffet,
what do you think w/ my ans to your questions?

Pregnancy Epulis has what histologically?
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen
- i think increased endothelial cells

Phenytoin enlargement has what histologically
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen 👍not sure

Serial extractions are contraindicated in
a) class II👍
b) normal overjet
c) normal overbite
d) crowding

Sulcular Epithelium (pick as many as true)
a) can be ulcerated
b) is permeable to bacteria
c) can undergo regeneration and degradation
d) acts as a barrier
- all of the above

Arrangement of Principle fibres of the PL are influenced mainly by
a) cementum
b) alveolar bone
c) occlusion👍
d) tooth morphology

To be honest I'm not really sure on any of them. I know for sure that pregnancy and phynetoin questions are different answers so you may be right on those two. The one that really bothers me is the sulcular epithelium questions. It is very difficult to find any details on the sulcular epithelium from any of my textbooks. Why did you pick all of the above.
 
A few more questions

Pregnancy Epulis has what histologically?
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen
None of the choices make sense ( to me atleast) but still if have ti pickone i wud go wid (b)

Phenytoin enlargement has what histologically
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen 👍

Serial extractions are contraindicated in
a) class II 👍
b) normal overjet
c) normal overbite
d) crowding

Sulcular Epithelium (pick as many as true)
a) can be ulcerated 👍
b) is permeable to bacteria
c) can undergo regeneration and degradation 👍
d) acts as a barrier 👍
I dont think that it is permeable to bacteria , infact it's the first line of defence against bacterial penetration. the bacteria can only after it gets ulcerated and it's intergrity is broken. ( jus my opinion)

Arrangement of Principle fibres of the PL are influenced mainly by
a) cementum
b) alveolar bone
c) occlusion 👍
d) tooth morphology
 
Thanks for all the help. Here is another batch of difficult/tricky questions.

Enamel Maturation is completed
- after eruption
- at the time of eruption
- before eruption
- before eruption but after the root starts to form

A little tricky. My text book says before eruption. However, there are post-maturation changes that occurs when saliva interacts with enamel. It all depends on weather the ACFD thinks that post-maturation changes are included in the entire process of "Enamel Maturation".

Each causes Hairy Leukoplakia except:
- Steroids
- Mouth Wash
- Antibiotics
- Candida
I got no idea. I only know that Epstein Barr virus causes it. It can also be caused by irritation and smoking. I suppose I can lean towards "Antibiotics" because all the rest might cause some sort of irritation. However that is a pure guess.

Furcation involvement with the worse prognosis
- divergent roots
- close roots
- enamel pearls
- bifurcation ridge
I think its close roots. The worse prognosis means the most difficult to clean. Its more difficult to clean close roots. But i'm not sure about how enamel pearls and a bifurcation ridge would influence this. What do you think?

The Most addictive drug is
- morphine
- codeine
- hydrocodone
Has to be morphine

Pressure for denture relines is placed on
- the ridges
- the teeth
- on the rests
- on the clasps
Not sure
 
To be honest I'm not really sure on any of them. I know for sure that pregnancy and phynetoin questions are different answers so you may be right on those two. The one that really bothers me is the sulcular epithelium questions. It is very difficult to find any details on the sulcular epithelium from any of my textbooks. Why did you pick all of the above.

sulcular epithelium is semipermeable according to the textbook (caranza) so i choose all of the above.
 
25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
D. bone grafting.

Thanks
 
the answer is....

25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.🙂
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
D. bone grafting.

Thanks
correct me if im wrong..............
 
A few more questions

Pregnancy Epulis has what histologically?
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen
Answer would be Increase endothelial cells👍

Phenytoin enlargement has what histologically
a) increased epithelial cells
b) increased collagen 👍

Serial extractions are contraindicated in
a) class II👍
b) normal overjet
c) normal overbite
d) crowding

Sulcular Epithelium (pick as many as true)
a) can be ulcerated👍
b) is permeable to bacteria
c) can undergo regeneration and degradation👍
d) acts as a barrier👍

Arrangement of Principle fibres of the PL are influenced mainly by
a) cementum
b) alveolar bone
c) occlusion👍
d) tooth morphology

Correct me if I am wrong

Thnks
 
Thanks for all the help. Here is another batch of difficult/tricky questions.

Enamel Maturation is completed
- after eruptionthumbup:
- at the time of eruption
- before eruption
- before eruption but after the root starts to form:

A little tricky. My text book says before eruption. However, there are post-maturation changes that occurs when saliva interacts with enamel. It all depends on weather the ACFD thinks that post-maturation changes are included in the entire process of "Enamel Maturation".

Each causes Hairy Leukoplakia except:
- Steroids
- Mouth Wash
- Antibiotics
- Candida👍
I got no idea. I only know that Epstein Barr virus causes it. It can also be caused by irritation and smoking. I suppose I can lean towards "Antibiotics" because all the rest might cause some sort of irritation. However that is a pure guess.

Furcation involvement with the worse prognosis
- divergent roots
- close roots👍
- enamel pearls
- bifurcation ridge
I think its close roots. The worse prognosis means the most difficult to clean. Its more difficult to clean close roots. But i'm not sure about how enamel pearls and a bifurcation ridge would influence this. What do you think?

The Most addictive drug is
- morphine
- codeine
- hydrocodone👍
Has to be morphine

Pressure for denture relines is placed on
- the ridges👍
- the teeth
- on the rests
- on the clasps
Not sure

Correct me If I am wrong

Thnks
 
19. causes hairy tongue which is (are) scientifically proven? (pick many)
1. candida
2. mouth rinses👍
3. hairy leukoplakia - Eipstein barr virus
4. head and neck radiation👍

This questions is repeated from earlier in the thread with lots of different answers.
I think 2 and 4 are true cause they were referenced from these sites:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_hairy_tongue
Some of these factors include poor oral hygiene, tooth loss (because their soft diet does not allow for normal desquamation from rough food scraping the tongue), chronic or extensive use of antibiotics, and radiation treatments to the head and neck.

http://www.mayoclinic.com/health/black-hairy-tongue/HQ00325
Regular use of mouthwashes containing oxidizing agents, such as peroxide, or astringent agents, such as witch hazel or menthol


Cant find anything saying Candida and hairy leukoplakia. The answer must be 2&4. Anyone else agree?

I agree with you
Thnks
 
To Dr. YMP

Enamel Maturation is completed
- after eruption
- at the time of eruption
- before eruption
- before eruption but after the root starts to form

Why did you pick "before eruption but after the root starts to form"?
"Root development proceeds some time after the crown has formed. . . " page 335 from Berkovitz. Please give an explanation. It's a hard question.

The Most addictive drug is
- morphine
- codeine
- hydrocodone
Why did you pick hydrocodone? Hydrocodone (Vicoden) is a Morphine derivative. It doesn't make sense that the derivative would be more addictive than the original form.
 
Thanks for all the help. Here is another batch of difficult/tricky questions.

Enamel Maturation is completed
- after eruption
- at the time of eruption
- before eruption👍
- before eruption but after the root starts to form

A little tricky. My text book says before eruption. However, there are post-maturation changes that occurs when saliva interacts with enamel. It all depends on weather the ACFD thinks that post-maturation changes are included in the entire process of "Enamel Maturation".

Each causes Hairy Leukoplakia except:
- Steroids
- Mouth Wash👍
- Antibiotics
- Candida
I got no idea. I only know that Epstein Barr virus causes it. It can also be caused by irritation and smoking. I suppose I can lean towards "Antibiotics" because all the rest might cause some sort of irritation. However that is a pure guess.

Furcation involvement with the worse prognosis
- divergent roots
- close roots👍
- enamel pearls
- bifurcation ridge
I think its close roots. The worse prognosis means the most difficult to clean. Its more difficult to clean close roots. But i'm not sure about how enamel pearls and a bifurcation ridge would influence this. What do you think?

The Most addictive drug is
- morphine👍
- codeine
- hydrocodone
Has to be morphine

Pressure for denture relines is placed on
- the ridges
- the teeth
- on the rests👍
- on the clasps
Not sure

thanks for the questions...🙂
 
Hi there

Yes Most addictive drug is morphine... But I answered because more potent drug out of all is hydromorphone...

For enamel maturation... Its difficult to get correct choice with support...

But I found something...
Enamel maturation:
A period of one or two years after eruption during which time the enamel becomes "fully" mineralized (matured).

http://wps.prenhall.com/wps/media/objects/969/992308/glossary.htm#E

So I thnk I will go for after eruption...

Thnks


To Dr. YMP

Enamel Maturation is completed
- after eruption
- at the time of eruption
- before eruption
- before eruption but after the root starts to form

Why did you pick "before eruption but after the root starts to form"?
"Root development proceeds some time after the crown has formed. . . " page 335 from Berkovitz. Please give an explanation. It's a hard question.

The Most addictive drug is
- morphine
- codeine
- hydrocodone
Why did you pick hydrocodone? Hydrocodone (Vicoden) is a Morphine derivative. It doesn't make sense that the derivative would be more addictive than the original form.
 
Where is the injection site for V2 nerve block?
a. b. c. infratemporal d. spenopalatine fossa

would be great if anybody can complete the choices...

what is your ans?

thanks🙂

 
1. selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by
a. line voltage fluctuation
b. diameter of the primary beam of radiation
c. type of timer
d. tissue density
e. filter thickness

2. radiographically, the opening of the incisive canal may
be misdiagnosed as a
1. branchial cyst
2. nasopalatine cyst
3. nasolabial cyst
4. radicular cyst
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above

3. which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival?
a. osteosarcoma
b. melanoma
c. ameloblastoma
d. adenocarcinoma

4. which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
a. salivary gland
b. teeth
c. sweat gland
d hair
e. fingernails

5. which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral ulceration?
a. history of the lesion
b. cytologic smear
c. systemic evaluation
d. laboratory tests

6. an examination of a patient who hass fallen on their chin and fractured the right subcondylar region would reveal
1. trismus
2 deflection of the mandible to the left
3. pain and tenderness
4. paresthesia of the rigth lower lip
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above
 
1. selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by
a. line voltage fluctuation
b. diameter of the primary beam of radiation
c. type of timer
d. tissue density👍
e. filter thickness

2. radiographically, the opening of the incisive canal may
be misdiagnosed as a
1. branchial cyst
2. nasopalatine cyst
3. nasolabial cyst
4. radicular cyst
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4👍 d.4 only e. all of the above

3. which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival?
a. osteosarcoma
b. melanoma
c. ameloblastoma👍
d. adenocarcinoma

4. which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
a. salivary gland👍
b. teeth
c. sweat gland
d hair
e. fingernails

5. which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral ulceration?
a. history of the lesion👍
b. cytologic smear
c. systemic evaluation
d. laboratory tests

6. an examination of a patient who hass fallen on their chin and fractured the right subcondylar region would reveal
1. trismus
2 deflection of the mandible to the left
3. pain and tenderness
4. paresthesia of the rigth lower lip
a. 12&3 b. 1&3👍 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above

Correct me If I am wrong

Thnks
 
Ans. Pterygopalatine fossa

Where is the injection site for V2 nerve block?
a. b. c. infratemporal d. spenopalatine fossa

would be great if anybody can complete the choices...

what is your ans?

thanks🙂
 
Correct me If I am wrong

Thnks

1. selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by
a. line voltage fluctuation
b. diameter of the primary beam of radiation
c. type of timer
d. tissue density👍
e. filter thickness

4. which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
a. salivary gland😕
b. teeth
c. sweat gland
d hair
e. fingernails

You are wrong on 1. The answer for 1 is Tissue Density. Kilovoltage settings affect penetration.

The answer for 4 is difficult cause Ectodermal Dysplasia affects ALL of the choices. Although the question is probably probing for the MOST correct answer. You may be correct with salivary glands because in Medical Problems In Dentistry by Scully it states that
"Minor Salivary Glands may fail to form." Thus indicating that only minor glands are affected and not the major ones.
 
i agree with u...ts density is the most appropriate answer n salivary glands though r also affected but probably the least affected of the following choices....👍l




1. selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by
a. line voltage fluctuation
b. diameter of the primary beam of radiation
c. type of timer
d. tissue density👍
e. filter thickness

4. which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
a. salivary gland😕
b. teeth
c. sweat gland
d hair
e. fingernails

You are wrong on 1. The answer for 1 is Tissue Density. Kilovoltage settings affect penetration.

The answer for 4 is difficult cause Ectodermal Dysplasia affects ALL of the choices. Although the question is probably probing for the MOST correct answer. You may be correct with salivary glands because in Medical Problems In Dentistry by Scully it states that
"Minor Salivary Glands may fail to form." Thus indicating that only minor glands are affected and not the major ones.
 
hi Docs.,
please help me find the answers,too much to read, thanks!🙂
In a Class II amalgam cavity preparation, what is the purpose of breaking contact at the gingival cavosurface?

What is the purpose of placing retention grooves and where are they placed?

Which feature provides the bond onlay the most retention?
what are Schedule II Drugs???

What is the most likely diagnosis of a bilateral white macule on the floor of the mouth?

The percentage of specific local anesthetic that is present in the base form when injected in tissue of 7.4pH, what happens to the onset of action and duration of action?

During injection of the posterior superior alveolar nerve (PSA) a swelling suddenly occurs, what most likely happened? What is the treatment for this?

Which injection most likely has a positive aspiration?

What is the purpose of beveling at the MON cavosurface?
 
HI I AM HOPING FOR SOME HELP WITH THESE QUESTIONS THANK YOU SO MUCH FOR YOUR TIME! GOD BLESS!

1. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a
hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulp
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a
patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment.
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette.
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can
be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.
B. edematous.
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free
gingiva.
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival
junction.
12. In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue
regeneration” is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the
mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous
corium.
22. Water irrigation devices have been shown to
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth.
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.
23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached
gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva.
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
D. bone grafting.
28. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the
shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called
A. remodeling.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.
35. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo
degeneration, they are replaced by
A. ameloblasts.
B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.
C. multinucleated giant cells.
D. osteoblasts.
36. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely.
D. vertically.
37. The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
41. Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.
44. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the
largest numbers in response to the accumulation of
plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
45. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a
patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth.
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
49. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.
52. Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.
62. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat
oral malignancies is
A. deformity of the jaws.
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
64. Which of the following is most often associated
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
67. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental
films is influenced by
A. line voltage fluctuation.
B. diameter of the primary beam of
radiation.
C. type of timer.
D. tissue density.
E. filter thickness.
68. In radiography, minimum magnification and
maximum definition are achieved by
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
70. During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture
will exhibit
A. expansion.
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
72. Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
74. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
76. Dental porcelain has
1. low compressive strength.
2. high hardness.
3. high tensile strength.
4. low impact strength.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.
82. Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
92. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on
tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was
most probably caused by a/an
A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.
96. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
97. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.
100. Which of the following conditions is characterized
by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia.
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
102. An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted.
D. found in the permanent dentition.
E. Down's syndrome.
106. For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
107. Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased
mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic
inflammatory cells are histologic features that may
be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.
109. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the
maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no
evidence of dental infection, the most likely
diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis.
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
111. Which one of the following would be of greatest
value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.
113. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis.
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
D. Sjögren’s syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.
114. Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip.
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.
133. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in
A. abnormal formation of osteoid.
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease.
D. myositis ossificans.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta.
 
HI I AM HOPING FOR SOME HELP WITH THESE QUESTIONS THANK YOU SO MUCH FOR YOUR TIME! GOD BLESS!

1. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a
hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.[/FONT
C. has a hyperemic pulp👍
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a
patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment.👍
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette.👍
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can
be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.
B. edematous.👍
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free
gingiva.👍
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival
junction.
12. In periodontal therapy, "guided tissue
regeneration" is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)👍
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the:
mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous
corium.
22. Water irrigation devices have been shown to
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between:
teeth.
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.
23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached
gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.👍
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva.
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.👍
25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.👍
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
D. bone grafting.
28. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the
shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called
A. remodeling.👍
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.
35. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo
degeneration, they are replaced by
A. ameloblasts.
B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.
C. multinucleated giant cells.
D. osteoblasts.
36. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely.
D. vertically.
37. The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
41. Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.
44. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the
largest numbers in response to the accumulation of
plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
45. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a
patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth.
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
49. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.
52. Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.
62. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat
oral malignancies is
A. deformity of the jaws.
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
64. Which of the following is most often associated
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
67. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental
films is influenced by
A. line voltage fluctuation.
B. diameter of the primary beam of
radiation.
C. type of timer.
D. tissue density.
E. filter thickness.
68. In radiography, minimum magnification and
maximum definition are achieved by
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
70. During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture
will exhibit
A. expansion.
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
72. Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
74. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
76. Dental porcelain has
1. low compressive strength.
2. high hardness.
3. high tensile strength.
4. low impact strength.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.
82. Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
92. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on
tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was
most probably caused by a/an
A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.
96. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
97. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.
100. Which of the following conditions is characterized
by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia.
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
102. An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted.
D. found in the permanent dentition.
E. Down's syndrome.
106. For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
107. Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased
mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic
inflammatory cells are histologic features that may
be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.
109. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the
maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no
evidence of dental infection, the most likely
diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis.
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
111. Which one of the following would be of greatest
value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.
113. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis.
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
D. Sjögren's syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.
114. Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip.
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.
133. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in
A. abnormal formation of osteoid.
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease.
D. myositis ossificans.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta.


For question 13 its D and for 22 its B
Correct me If I am wrong.
Remaining answer give you later.

Thnks
 
1. selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by
a. line voltage fluctuation
b. diameter of the primary beam of radiation
c. type of timer
d. tissue density👍
e. filter thickness

4. which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
a. salivary gland😕
b. teeth
c. sweat gland
d hair
e. fingernails

You are wrong on 1. The answer for 1 is Tissue Density. Kilovoltage settings affect penetration.

The answer for 4 is difficult cause Ectodermal Dysplasia affects ALL of the choices. Although the question is probably probing for the MOST correct answer. You may be correct with salivary glands because in Medical Problems In Dentistry by Scully it states that
"Minor Salivary Glands may fail to form." Thus indicating that only minor glands are affected and not the major ones.


I agree with you for first question but for second out of all choices Only salivary gland we can choose, you are right that even salivary gland is sometime affected by ectodermal displasia but all other structure are ectodermal origin and they are affected for sure. So I will stick with my answer for second question

Thnks for correcting me.
 
HI I AM HOPING FOR SOME HELP WITH THESE QUESTIONS THANK YOU SO MUCH FOR YOUR TIME! GOD BLESS!

1. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a
hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulpans
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a
patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette.
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can
be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.
B. edematous.
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free
gingiva.
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival
junction.
12. In periodontal therapy, “guided tissue
regeneration” is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the
mucogingival junction

E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous
corium.
22. Water irrigation devices have been shown to
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth.

C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.
23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached
gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva.
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
D. bone grafting.
28. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the
shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called
A. remodeling.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.
35. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo
degeneration, they are replaced by
A. ameloblasts.

C. multinucleated giant cells.
D. osteoblasts.
36. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely.
D. vertically.😕
37. The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
41. Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.
44. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the
largest numbers in response to the accumulation of
plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Macrophages.😕
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
45. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a
patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth.
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
49. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.
52. Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.

D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.
62. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat
oral malignancies is
A. deformity of the jaws.
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
64. Which of the following is most often associated
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.😕
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
67. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental
films is influenced by
A. line voltage fluctuation.
B. diameter of the primary beam of
radiation.
C. type of timer.
D. tissue density.
E. filter thickness.
68. In radiography, minimum magnification and
maximum definition are achieved by
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
nce) and
maximum FFD (focal-film distance).🙂
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
70. During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture
will exhibit
A. expansion.
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
72. Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
74. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
76. Dental porcelain has
1. low compressive strength.
2. high hardness.
3. high tensile strength.
4. low impact strength.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.
82. Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.

4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
92. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on
tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was
most probably caused by a/an
A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.

E. hereditary factor.
96. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.😕
97. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.
100. Which of the following conditions is characterized
by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia.
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
102. An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted.
D. found in the permanent dentition.
E. Down's syndrome.
106. For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
107. Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased
mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic
inflammatory cells are histologic features that may
be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.
109. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the
maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no
evidence of dental infection, the most likely
diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis.
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
111. Which one of the following would be of greatest
value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.🙂
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.
113. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis.
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
D. Sjögren’s syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.
114. Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip.😕
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.
133. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in
A. abnormal formation of osteoid.
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease.
D. myositis ossificans.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta.

correct me if n where i`m wrong.........👍
 
can anyone please help me with these??????????,thanks

In a Class II amalgam cavity preparation, what is the purpose of breaking contact at the gingival cavosurface?

What is the purpose of placing retention grooves and where are they placed?

Which feature provides the bond onlay the most retention?
what are Schedule II Drugs???

What is the most likely diagnosis of a bilateral white macule on the floor of the mouth?

The percentage of specific local anesthetic that is present in the base form when injected in tissue of 7.4pH, what happens to the onset of action and duration of action?

During injection of the posterior superior alveolar nerve (PSA) a swelling suddenly occurs, what most likely happened? What is the treatment for this?

Which injection most likely has a positive aspiration?

What is the purpose of beveling at the MON cavosurface?
 
hi all,
could you please help me with this basic questions:
Dental decks has this conflict:
On one card: direct Gold coefficient thermal conductivity is 12 times of the amalgam.
on another one: direct Gold as a thermal insulator is very good while amalgam is poor.
Please help

Regards

John
 
in an edentulous maxilla, the direction of resorption of the alveolar ridge is
a. upward and palatally
b. upward and facially
c. uniform in all directions
d. upward only

which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the largest numbers in response to the accumulation of plaque?
a. plasma cells and monocytes
b. polymorphonuclear leukocytes
c. macrophages
d. lymphocytes
e. mast cells

the area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity prep?
a. dentin
b. cementum
c. cej
d. dej


thanks🙂
 
hi
in an edentulous maxilla, the direction of resorption of the alveolar ridge is
a. upward and palatally🙂
b. upward and facially
c. uniform in all directions
d. upward only

which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the largest numbers in response to the accumulation of plaque?
a. plasma cells and monocytes
b. polymorphonuclear leukocytes🙂
c. macrophages
d. lymphocytes
e. mast cells

the area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity prep?
a. dentin
b. cementum
c. cej
d. dej🙂


thanks🙂
 
The chief mechanism by which the body
metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is
A. oxidation
B. reduction.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation..👍
D. sequestration in the body fats.

Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount..👍
C. Using warmer water
D. Decreasing the mixing time.

The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.😕
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.😕


A 23 year old female complains of bilateral
stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region.
Her symptoms have been present for the past week
and are most pronounced in the morning. The
most likely cause is
A. fibrous ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joints.
B. nocturnal bruxism..👍
C. early osteoarthritis
D. mandibular subluxation.

Please correct me for above written questions...
 
Sorry, but two of your questions are wrong

The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut👍

This is because gold can flex more then chromium and can flex over a bigger undercut.

A 23 year old female complains of bilateral
stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region.
Her symptoms have been present for the past week
and are most pronounced in the morning. The
most likely cause is
A. fibrous ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joints.
B. nocturnal bruxism.👍
C. early osteoarthritis
D. mandibular subluxation.

Why would osteoarthritis be pronouned in the morning. Only sleeping and grinding your teeth does this.
 
The chief mechanism by which the body
metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is
A. oxidation.
B. reduction.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation. 👍
D. sequestration in the body fats.
 
The chief mechanism by which the body
metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is
A. oxidation.👍
B. reduction.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation.
D. sequestration in the body fats.

Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a👍
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.

The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut👍


A 23 year old female complains of bilateral
stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region.
Her symptoms have been present for the past week
and are most pronounced in the morning. The
most likely cause is
A. fibrous ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joints.
B. nocturnal bruxism.👍
C. early osteoarthritis.
D. mandibular subluxation.
 
premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by
a. anterior crowding
b. labially displaced maxillary canines
c. a class II molar relationship on the affected side
d. a class III molar relationship on the affected side

a 7 yr old patient has a left unilateral posterior crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible. the most appropriate treatment for this patient is
a. bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch
b. unilateral expansion of a maxillary arch
c. placement of a maxillary repositioning device
d. observation until the permanent teeth erupt
e. bilateral constriction of the mandibular arch

an 8 yr old patient with all primary molars still present exhibit a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. the management of this patient should be to

a. plan serial extraction for more normal adjustment of the occlusion
b. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation
c. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars
d. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars
e. observe

a major disadvantage of the cervical headgear used for some orthodontic treatment is the risk

a. intrusion of maxillary canines
b. extrusion of maxillary incisors
c. extrusion of maxillary molars
d. deformity of the neck
e. psychological trauma due to appearance

thanks🙂
 
The chief mechanism by which the body
metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is
A. oxidation.😕
B. reduction.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation. 😕
D. sequestration in the body fats.

I HATE IT WHEN PEOPLE WRITE CONFLICTING ANSWERS AND DON'T EXPLAIN THEM! Everyone knows that the answer to this questions is either A or C but no one knows for sure. Unless someone can actually quote a reference saying that its Hydroxylation and Oxidation i'm gonna go with A. Although its a pure guess cause I can't really reference that either. Anyone know FOR SURE?
 
Thnks for explanation..

Sorry, but two of your questions are wrong

The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut👍

This is because gold can flex more then chromium and can flex over a bigger undercut.

A 23 year old female complains of bilateral
stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region.
Her symptoms have been present for the past week
and are most pronounced in the morning. The
most likely cause is
A. fibrous ankylosis of the
temporomandibular joints.
B. nocturnal bruxism.👍
C. early osteoarthritis
D. mandibular subluxation.

Why would osteoarthritis be pronouned in the morning. Only sleeping and grinding your teeth does this.
 
🙂
premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by
a. anterior crowding
b. labially displaced maxillary canines
c. a class II molar relationship on the affected side🙂
d. a class III molar relationship on the affected side

a 7 yr old patient has a left unilateral posterior crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible. the most appropriate treatment for this patient is
a. bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch🙂
b. unilateral expansion of a maxillary arch
c. placement of a maxillary repositioning device
d. observation until the permanent teeth erupt
e. bilateral constriction of the mandibular arch

an 8 yr old patient with all primary molars still present exhibit a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. the management of this patient should be to

a. plan serial extraction for more normal adjustment of the occlusion
b. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation
c. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars
d. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars
e. observe🙂

a major disadvantage of the cervical headgear used for some orthodontic treatment is the risk

a. intrusion of maxillary canines
b. extrusion of maxillary incisors
c. extrusion of maxillary molars🙂
d. deformity of the neck
e. psychological trauma due to appearance

thanks🙂
 
hi guys,
please correct me if i'm wrong
thanks🙂

1. on bitewing radiograph of posterior teeth, which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries?

a. cej*
b. marginal ridge
c. carabelli cusp
d. calculus
e. cemental tears

2. in the early stage, a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
a. pain
b. type of exudate
c. tenderness to percussion
d. response of pulp to percussion*
e. radiographic examination

3. which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival
a. osteosarcoma
b. melanoma
c. ameloblastoma*
d. adenocarcinoma

4. if an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space, the most obvious clinical sign will be
a. trismus*
b. facial swelling
c. swelling in the submandibular area
d. rise in the body temperature above 38C (102F)

5. immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection, the patient's face becomes quickly and visibly swollen. the immediate treatment should be to
a. use pressure followed by cold packs over swelling*
b. use hot packs over swelling
c. refer the patient to a hospital
d. administer 100mg hydrocortisone intravenously
e. administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride (benadryl) 50mg intravenously

6. trismus is frequently caused by
a. tetanus*
b. muscular dystrophy
c. infection
d. mandibular fracture

7. Acquired Immune Deficiency syndrome (AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats
3. extreme malaise, fever and chills
4. a smooth and red tongue
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above*

8. which properties increase the tendency of a drug to cross membranes
a. non-ionized and high lipid solubility*
b. non-ionized and low lipid solubility
c. ionized and low lipid solubility
d. ionized and water solubility

9. which of the following would you prescribe for an anxious patient with peptic ulcer
a. reserpine
b. scopolamine
c. silica gel
d. diazepam*
e. calcium carbonate

10. a patient with non-healing lesion on the side of the nose. it has a rolled border and has been increasing in size. the most likely diagnosis is
a. a sebaceous cyst
b. a basal cell carcinoma*
c. lupus erythematosus
d. verruca vulgaris
e. an epulis

11. A 12 year old child presents with characteristic
tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and
mandibular incisors and permanent first molars.
The probable age at which this child received
tetracycline therapy was
A. 6 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 1 year.*
D. before birth.
 
hi guys,
please correct me if i'm wrong
thanks🙂

1. on bitewing radiograph of posterior teeth, which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries?

a. cej*
b. marginal ridge
c. carabelli cusp
d. calculus
e. cemental tears

2. in the early stage, a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
a. pain
b. type of exudate
c. tenderness to percussion
d. response of pulp to percussion*
e. radiographic examination

3. which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival
a. osteosarcoma
b. melanoma
c. ameloblastoma*
d. adenocarcinoma

4. if an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space, the most obvious clinical sign will be
a. trismus*
b. facial swelling
c. swelling in the submandibular area
d. rise in the body temperature above 38C (102F)

5. immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection, the patient's face becomes quickly and visibly swollen. the immediate treatment should be to
a. use pressure followed by cold packs over swelling*
b. use hot packs over swelling
c. refer the patient to a hospital
d. administer 100mg hydrocortisone intravenously
e. administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride (benadryl) 50mg intravenously

6. trismus is frequently caused by
a. tetanus*
b. muscular dystrophy
c. infection
d. mandibular fracture

7. Acquired Immune Deficiency syndrome (AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats
3. extreme malaise, fever and chills
4. a smooth and red tongue
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above*

8. which properties increase the tendency of a drug to cross membranes
a. non-ionized and high lipid solubility*
b. non-ionized and low lipid solubility
c. ionized and low lipid solubility
d. ionized and water solubility

9. which of the following would you prescribe for an anxious patient with peptic ulcer
a. reserpine
b. scopolamine
c. silica gel
d. diazepam*
e. calcium carbonate

10. a patient with non-healing lesion on the side of the nose. it has a rolled border and has been increasing in size. the most likely diagnosis is
a. a sebaceous cyst
b. a basal cell carcinoma*
c. lupus erythematosus
d. verruca vulgaris
e. an epulis

11. A 12 year old child presents with characteristic
tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and
mandibular incisors and permanent first molars.
The probable age at which this child received
tetracycline therapy was
A. 6 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 1 year.*
D. before birth.





6 trismus is frequently caused by
a. tetanus*
b. muscular dystrophy
c. infection👍I THINK INFECTION
d. mandibular fracture
 
Q1 according to ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a dentist can announce specialization in which of the following
a. implantology
b. hospital dentistry
c. aesthetic dentistry
d. dental public health
e. geriatric dentistry

Q2 symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.

Q3 a 22 years old male patient complaint of dull pain in the posterior left mandibular region. A radiograph made of this area reveals not only a radiolucency around the first molar roots, but also a radiopacity of bone peripheral to this radiolucency. Which of the following BEST explains this conditions? It is
a. normal for this patient
b. a developmental abnormal
c. an error in radiograph technique

Q4 what drug is used to treat HIV patient
a. acyclovir
b. amantadine
c. zidovudine
d. carbamazepine
d. a manifestation of systemic bone disease
e. a reaction to an apical inflammatory disease

Q5 which of the following represents the purpose of an open-ended questions
a. to elicit specific information
b. to test a patient’s truthfulness
c. to gather medical/legal information
d. to produce maximal freedom in response
e. to probe the details about a specific topic

Q6 digitalis can lead to
a. hypokalcemia
b. hyponatremis
c. hypocalcemia

Q7 tetracycline stain is incorporated during
a. apposition
b. mineralization
c. calcification

Q8 in the absent of the permanent tooth, the deciduous tooth will
a. not resorb
b. resorb like usually
c. resorb slowly
d. resorb at the faster rate

Q9 the initial instrumentation in endo treatment is done until
a. radiographic apex
b. DEJ junction
c. CDJ junction
d. cemental pulpal junction
 
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