HI I AM HOPING FOR SOME HELP WITH THESE QUESTIONS THANK YOU SO MUCH FOR YOUR TIME! GOD BLESS!
1. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a
hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.[/FONT
C. has a hyperemic pulp👍
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a
patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment.👍
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette.👍
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can
be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.
B. edematous.👍
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free
gingiva.👍
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival
junction.
12. In periodontal therapy, "guided tissue
regeneration" is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)👍
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the:
mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous
corium.
22. Water irrigation devices have been shown to
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between:
teeth.
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.
23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached
gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.👍
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva.
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.👍
25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.👍
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
D. bone grafting.
28. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the
shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called
A. remodeling.👍
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.
35. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo
degeneration, they are replaced by
A. ameloblasts.
B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.
C. multinucleated giant cells.
D. osteoblasts.
36. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely.
D. vertically.
37. The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
41. Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.
44. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the
largest numbers in response to the accumulation of
plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
45. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a
patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth.
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
49. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.
52. Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.
62. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat
oral malignancies is
A. deformity of the jaws.
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
64. Which of the following is most often associated
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
67. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental
films is influenced by
A. line voltage fluctuation.
B. diameter of the primary beam of
radiation.
C. type of timer.
D. tissue density.
E. filter thickness.
68. In radiography, minimum magnification and
maximum definition are achieved by
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
70. During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture
will exhibit
A. expansion.
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
72. Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
74. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
76. Dental porcelain has
1. low compressive strength.
2. high hardness.
3. high tensile strength.
4. low impact strength.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.
82. Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
92. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on
tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was
most probably caused by a/an
A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.
96. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
97. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.
100. Which of the following conditions is characterized
by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia.
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
102. An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted.
D. found in the permanent dentition.
E. Down's syndrome.
106. For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
107. Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased
mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic
inflammatory cells are histologic features that may
be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.
109. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the
maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no
evidence of dental infection, the most likely
diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis.
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
111. Which one of the following would be of greatest
value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.
113. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis.
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
D. Sjögren's syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.
114. Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip.
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.
133. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in
A. abnormal formation of osteoid.
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease.
D. myositis ossificans.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta.