- Joined
- Oct 28, 2008
- Messages
- 2,569
- Reaction score
- 40
Hi all, I ran across a (somewhat) interesting case at my hospital today, just thought I'd see your opinions on it.
Patient is a 38 year-old male who was admitted to a hospital in the Southwest for feeling generally unwell. No significant medical or family history. Social history is positive for alcoholism, in the amount of 5-6 beers and/or bottle of vodka per night. He had recently traveled to Mexico and was due to fly back home later that week. Upon admission, the patient is grossly jaundiced and has multiple spider-web angiomas. He was transferred to a hospital closer to home late last week.
Initial labs are relatively normal (LFT's are only slightly elevated), with the exception of total bilirubin (hovering around 30). He's transferred to the transplant service, where kidney function begins to decline (GFR is currently at 15). ID service was consulted, fungal infection is presumed, he is started on liposomal amphotericin. Later cultures show Candida albicans and gram positive cocci in clusters. Vanco was added, he is still on amphotericin (three days after cultures came back).
My question is this: once C. albicans was isolated, why wouldn't he have been switched to either fluconazole or an echinocandin (we have micafungin on formulary). The ID service has recommended 3-4 weeks of amphotericin, and no one can quite figure out why. Any ideas?
Patient is a 38 year-old male who was admitted to a hospital in the Southwest for feeling generally unwell. No significant medical or family history. Social history is positive for alcoholism, in the amount of 5-6 beers and/or bottle of vodka per night. He had recently traveled to Mexico and was due to fly back home later that week. Upon admission, the patient is grossly jaundiced and has multiple spider-web angiomas. He was transferred to a hospital closer to home late last week.
Initial labs are relatively normal (LFT's are only slightly elevated), with the exception of total bilirubin (hovering around 30). He's transferred to the transplant service, where kidney function begins to decline (GFR is currently at 15). ID service was consulted, fungal infection is presumed, he is started on liposomal amphotericin. Later cultures show Candida albicans and gram positive cocci in clusters. Vanco was added, he is still on amphotericin (three days after cultures came back).
My question is this: once C. albicans was isolated, why wouldn't he have been switched to either fluconazole or an echinocandin (we have micafungin on formulary). The ID service has recommended 3-4 weeks of amphotericin, and no one can quite figure out why. Any ideas?