Hi everyone. I don't understand the equation above. Hope someone can shed some light on it for me.
Here is what I understand so far:
Osmolar Clearance is the theoretical volume of plasma per unit time that the kidney has to filter in order to extract all the solutes out of that volume of plasma. In Osmolar Clearance, the solutes are excreted, but the fluids are returned to the body. Similarly, Free Water Clearance is the theoretical volume of plasma that the kidney has to filter in a certain amount of time in order to extract all the free water from that volume of plasma. In Free Water Clearance, the free water gets excreted while the rest of the plasma gets returned to the body.
Here is what I don't understand:
Since Free Water Clearance and the Osmolar Clearance are rate of fluids that eventually get returned to the body, why are their sum equal to the flow of Urine? If Free Water Clearance and Osmolar Clearance are rate of fluids that get excreted, then I can understand why their sum can be equal to the flow of Urine. However, I don't think Free Water Clearance and Osmolar Clearance are rate of fluids that get excreted. It seems like I am comparing two sides of the equation that has nothing to do with each other - like comparing apples to oranges.
Thanks in advance for any help.
Here is what I understand so far:
Osmolar Clearance is the theoretical volume of plasma per unit time that the kidney has to filter in order to extract all the solutes out of that volume of plasma. In Osmolar Clearance, the solutes are excreted, but the fluids are returned to the body. Similarly, Free Water Clearance is the theoretical volume of plasma that the kidney has to filter in a certain amount of time in order to extract all the free water from that volume of plasma. In Free Water Clearance, the free water gets excreted while the rest of the plasma gets returned to the body.
Here is what I don't understand:
Since Free Water Clearance and the Osmolar Clearance are rate of fluids that eventually get returned to the body, why are their sum equal to the flow of Urine? If Free Water Clearance and Osmolar Clearance are rate of fluids that get excreted, then I can understand why their sum can be equal to the flow of Urine. However, I don't think Free Water Clearance and Osmolar Clearance are rate of fluids that get excreted. It seems like I am comparing two sides of the equation that has nothing to do with each other - like comparing apples to oranges.
Thanks in advance for any help.
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