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I hope this isn't an imposition, but a friend of mine recently had a culposcopy and cervical biopsy done, and she doesn't understand the results that were sent to her. She's very worried, so I told her I'd do some research while she waits to talk to her doc.
Unfortunately, I'm still a premed, so I have no texts to reference. Here is the result she was given:
A. endocervix, curettage:
Scant minute benign fragments of endocervical epithelium with acute inflammation.
B. Cervix, biopsy
Fragment of cervical mucosa at the transformation zone with koilocytotic atypia and marked acute and chronic cervicitis.
The doctor said in the letter that she has a "nonspecific inflammation of the glands of the cervix". From what I've researched so far, it sounds like she does have the HPV virus, but the doctor didn't mention it in the letter she sent.
Would anyone be able to explain this to me (particularly B.) so I can reassure her? I would really appreciate it.
Unfortunately, I'm still a premed, so I have no texts to reference. Here is the result she was given:
A. endocervix, curettage:
Scant minute benign fragments of endocervical epithelium with acute inflammation.
B. Cervix, biopsy
Fragment of cervical mucosa at the transformation zone with koilocytotic atypia and marked acute and chronic cervicitis.
The doctor said in the letter that she has a "nonspecific inflammation of the glands of the cervix". From what I've researched so far, it sounds like she does have the HPV virus, but the doctor didn't mention it in the letter she sent.
Would anyone be able to explain this to me (particularly B.) so I can reassure her? I would really appreciate it.