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- May 28, 2003
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I was just curious about the whole licensing thing...if a person goes to a DO school, they then take the COMLEX and become Doctors of Osteopathy and apply for Osteopathic Residencies. Someone who goes to a Osteopathic school cannot apply for an allopathic residency unless he or she has taken the USMLE...is this correct?
And if a DO takes the USMLE in ADDITION to the COMLEX, he or she (gotta respect the genders--ahh high school English) is then eligible for both allopathic OR osteopathic residencies...is this correct? And if a DO takes the USMLE and passes, that doesn't make them an MD, does it?
And does a DO who has taken the USMLE fare better or worse (or perhaps the same....??) than his MD counterpart when residency match time comes?
These forums are great--I'm a neurotic college student and there's a ton of information here with which I can cram my brain in these summer months 😱
And if a DO takes the USMLE in ADDITION to the COMLEX, he or she (gotta respect the genders--ahh high school English) is then eligible for both allopathic OR osteopathic residencies...is this correct? And if a DO takes the USMLE and passes, that doesn't make them an MD, does it?
And does a DO who has taken the USMLE fare better or worse (or perhaps the same....??) than his MD counterpart when residency match time comes?
These forums are great--I'm a neurotic college student and there's a ton of information here with which I can cram my brain in these summer months 😱