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A 40-year-old renal transplant patient who received a donor kidney 5 years ago presents to your clinic with a 3 day history of oliguria, lower extremity edema, and nausea. She states that she hasn't taken her immunosuppressive medication for the past week due to a severe infection. Renal biopsy shows a large mononuclear infiltrate in her donated kidney. What is the most likely underlying cause of her condition?
a) Acute rejection
b) Chronic rejection
Narrowed it down to these two choices, but I don't know the actual answer. Any help would be appreciated!
a) Acute rejection
b) Chronic rejection
Narrowed it down to these two choices, but I don't know the actual answer. Any help would be appreciated!