came across something interesting on my rotations today - how do you explain the following readings in a patient:
52 y/o M w/ a PMH of hypertriglyceridemia (previously 1000 down to 450 now with drugs - no PMH of familiar hyper-TG-emia, though), acute renal insufficiency, hypothyroidism, hypertension, (NO DM) and has always had FBG of 90s (last one was in June 08) suddenly test for a FBG of 185 (patient claims he was fasting for 12 hours just like he's always done for all the previous lab work-ups)??? I mean, I can see if the patient's BG was previously always bordering in the 120s then I might buy this FBG but 90s to 185 in 3 months????? Anyone else find this scenario fishy?? MD signed the report off as pt having T2DM...hmm??? I just think it's very unlikely to become clearly non-diabetic to full-blown diabetes (full-blown since usually 2 readings of greater than 126 or I believe it is 1 reading greater than 180?? I could be wrong)
52 y/o M w/ a PMH of hypertriglyceridemia (previously 1000 down to 450 now with drugs - no PMH of familiar hyper-TG-emia, though), acute renal insufficiency, hypothyroidism, hypertension, (NO DM) and has always had FBG of 90s (last one was in June 08) suddenly test for a FBG of 185 (patient claims he was fasting for 12 hours just like he's always done for all the previous lab work-ups)??? I mean, I can see if the patient's BG was previously always bordering in the 120s then I might buy this FBG but 90s to 185 in 3 months????? Anyone else find this scenario fishy?? MD signed the report off as pt having T2DM...hmm??? I just think it's very unlikely to become clearly non-diabetic to full-blown diabetes (full-blown since usually 2 readings of greater than 126 or I believe it is 1 reading greater than 180?? I could be wrong)
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