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- Oct 15, 2006
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Hello Fry Guys,
So here I sit at the crossroads trying to understand the overt and covert meanings why DSM-IV-tr was 'updated' to V. There is a lot of historical drama between the previous versions which has created some measure of evolution (which I won't bring up because it would be far too distracting from this posting) in identifying what would be considered normal vs abnormal.
I'm starting to see public postings about it and it is carrying a high degree of paranoia. So with that said, what is the historical context behind this change?
So here I sit at the crossroads trying to understand the overt and covert meanings why DSM-IV-tr was 'updated' to V. There is a lot of historical drama between the previous versions which has created some measure of evolution (which I won't bring up because it would be far too distracting from this posting) in identifying what would be considered normal vs abnormal.
I'm starting to see public postings about it and it is carrying a high degree of paranoia. So with that said, what is the historical context behind this change?