Hi all guys, I'm a soon to be medical doctor but I'm still concerned about some aspects of EKG (that i'm actually rewiewing ).
First of all I still don't understand some of the physics that lies behind it: how is it possible that the PQ tract is isoelettric if the atria are depolarized and the ventricles still polarized? Doesn't this form an electric dipole? I found the same question here (I'm not the only crazy one around here at least u.u):
Why is the PR interval flat?
but no one seemed able to answer properly imho and I would like to repost the question.
Second more clinical/less phylosophic question: I understand that in STEMI the EKG reports an ST elevation; still I don't understand why this is not preceded by an ST depression, infact we can see this kind of pattern (endocardic->epicardic) for the ischemic lesion (high peak t-wawe that becomes an inverted t-wawe) that preceeds the injury but not for the injury itself. Thanks for your kind answers 🙂
First of all I still don't understand some of the physics that lies behind it: how is it possible that the PQ tract is isoelettric if the atria are depolarized and the ventricles still polarized? Doesn't this form an electric dipole? I found the same question here (I'm not the only crazy one around here at least u.u):
Why is the PR interval flat?
but no one seemed able to answer properly imho and I would like to repost the question.
Second more clinical/less phylosophic question: I understand that in STEMI the EKG reports an ST elevation; still I don't understand why this is not preceded by an ST depression, infact we can see this kind of pattern (endocardic->epicardic) for the ischemic lesion (high peak t-wawe that becomes an inverted t-wawe) that preceeds the injury but not for the injury itself. Thanks for your kind answers 🙂