- Joined
- Jun 23, 2007
- Messages
- 3,865
- Reaction score
- 1,287
- Points
- 5,196
- Attending Physician
Let's say you are doing an elective abdominal case on a old guy >75y/o with documented CRI who is found to have worsened creatinine on preop testing. Would you do it? Is surgery going to affect CRI? Delay the case for more testing?
Any thoughts?
So by Copro's plan, he'd have at least two hits: age and diuretic use intra-op...
-Hold the ACE.
-Light on the fluids.
-50-100 meq NaHCO3 intraop
-25-50g mannitol intraop
-40-80mg furosemide intraop
-Watch the Foley like Hillary Clinton watching the exit polls.
Done.
-copro
couple of points here:
volume of intraop urine output has been shown to not correlate with post op renal function in Aortic surgery ....about as HIGH a risk of worsening renal function.
diuretic therapy.....theorized a lot , but I have yet to see convincing data.
If a patient is demonstrating an unexpected and worrisome increase in creatinine that can not be explained by the normal progress of his underlying disease, then I think elective surgery should be delayed until we address any factor that can be causing that increase and can be corrected:Pt was taken off lasix. Seemed like dehydration. Repeat labs 2 days later showed improved creatinine. We did the case w/o problems.
I was just wondering what would be the best approach if the repeat labs showed no change in crt. Would it be worthwhile to wait for something that you could not fix? Would a short anesthetic for something like a hernia tip the kidneys off? Should the pt live with a hernia because surgery/anesthesia might make it worse? I actually wanted to do the case regardless of crt level but everybody around me was so concerned about it that I felt bad proceding.
-Hold the ACE.
-Light on the fluids.
-50-100 meq NaHCO3 intraop
-25-50g mannitol intraop
-40-80mg furosemide intraop
-Watch the Foley like Hillary Clinton watching the exit polls.
Done.
-copro
It sounds like this patient just has ARI.
He may be dry. I don't know. He may be on an ACE. I don't know. He may be approaching kidney failure. I don't know.... with documented CRI who is found to have worsened creatinine on preop testing.
This was the exact quote from the OP:
He may be dry. I don't know. He may be on an ACE. I don't know. He may be approaching kidney failure. I don't know.
A >75-year-old is not going to turn over a lot of creatinine to begin with. So, you need to be suspicious when the creatinine is high in this population. It would be nice to see what the BUN:creat ratio was, as this would point to the fact that he is dehydrated. But, we don't have that. On the face of it, I assumed that he is getting worsening renal insufficiency.
Also, what kind of belly case is this? Does he have a big aortic aneurysm that is impeding blood flow to the kidneys?
Stopping the ACE (if he's on one) is the first choice.
Light on the fluids is the second, if he's in renal failure and not dry. If he's not pumping out the fluid, then there's no point putting more in and possibly putting him into failure.
Bicarb will be a part of the renal protective strategy by alkalinizing the urine and protecting him further from that protein load going through his kidneys (as well as offsetting the effects of mannitol). Same for the diuretics, mannitol and lasix, which will both increase GFR and also increase the amount of solute going into the urine. You want to see him pee during the case. Peeing is better than not peeing in someone with kidney failure (whatever degree), even though some might argue that you're only making yourself feel better.
-copro
So, you want to restrict fluids but at the same time you want to give a volume load in the form of Bicarb and Mannitol ?
Are you sure that loop diuretics increase GFR?
🙂
1- As you know, when you give an osmotic diuretic (Mannitol) you are not only giving the volume of the diuretic itself but also causing a significant increase in intravascular volume by shifting fluids toward the intravascular compartment and hoping the kidney will be able to eliminate that extra volume or you won't really be helping the patient.150 mL of fluid to give 25g of mannitol and 50meq of bicarb. Not exactly a fluid bolus.
Mannitol increase GFR. Lasix diureses. You're going to dry him out more, clearly. But, I'm assuming that he's in possibly acute on chronic renal failure and not clearing fluids.
If his BUN is elevated and his creatinine is bumped, this changes everything. Mental masturbation here. No doubt.
-copro
1- As you know, when you give an osmotic diuretic (Mannitol) you are not only giving the volume of the diuretic itself but also causing a significant increase in intravascular volume by shifting fluids toward the intravascular compartment and hoping the kidney will be able to eliminate that extra volume or you won't really be helping the patient.
2- Sodium bicarb is not only volume but also a major sodium load.
3- Why is an IV loop diuretic good for protecting the kidney regardless of the hydration status?
The mannitol will remain longer and cause a longer intra vascular expansion in chronic renal failure and that might be all you need to put this patient in CHF especially if you add a sodium load to it. This also goes against your strategy of "not too much fluids". 😉This is a transient effect. You are increasing GFR by the mannitol, and you will only get a temporary bump in BP (for example) before you dump the fluid. The net-effect is overall body water loss provided the kidney dumps urine (hence the furosemide). This patient has CRI, not ESRD. So, unless he's producing no urine (no indication of this) it will work.
Water's gotta go somewhere. Peeing is better than not peeing. For the reasons you elucidate, you want to make sure that kidney is dumping. So, not really "protecting" the kidney, but protecting overal renal output (if you will) by making sure your other actions maintain the net effect of moving fluid into the bladder. I did give him mannitol after all, right?
I'm essentially treating this patient like a supra-renal aortic crossclamp.
-copro