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- May 6, 2009
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So I was doing one of the practice tesst in the EK 101 book which are actually really good for the most part. However, when it comes to some answers, the explanations just do not do it for me. Even looking it after the test I still can not understand exactly why it is a good choice. I am not sure if this is a problem with my logic or that I really have a point.
For example, for those of you who have recently looked at this stuff, take question 40 from verbal reasoning test #12.
Suppose it could be established that many, many women and men do not exhibit the tendencies described in the passage. The author of the passage would be most likely to respond to this information by:
Answer-Explaining that his arguments were obviously generalizations.
The thing that immediately made me not choose the correct answer is that in the question stem it emphasizes many, many, women and men....To me this sounds like a generalization when you are saying many, many, women and men... In the passage the author himself says that many people DO exhibit the stated traits. But why would the mere fact that he is saying his arguments are generalizations, defend against the other viewpoint? In other words, the author is saying many people DO exhibit the traits, while the opposing side is saying many people DO NOT exhibit the traits. So on both sides we are talking about generalizations since we are talking about many people. But why is it that the author saying his viewpoints are generalizations defend him against the other side?
Sorry if it was confusing. Im just confused myself. open to any input.
For example, for those of you who have recently looked at this stuff, take question 40 from verbal reasoning test #12.
Suppose it could be established that many, many women and men do not exhibit the tendencies described in the passage. The author of the passage would be most likely to respond to this information by:
Answer-Explaining that his arguments were obviously generalizations.
The thing that immediately made me not choose the correct answer is that in the question stem it emphasizes many, many, women and men....To me this sounds like a generalization when you are saying many, many, women and men... In the passage the author himself says that many people DO exhibit the stated traits. But why would the mere fact that he is saying his arguments are generalizations, defend against the other viewpoint? In other words, the author is saying many people DO exhibit the traits, while the opposing side is saying many people DO NOT exhibit the traits. So on both sides we are talking about generalizations since we are talking about many people. But why is it that the author saying his viewpoints are generalizations defend him against the other side?
Sorry if it was confusing. Im just confused myself. open to any input.
