My approach:
Preop A line and FNB with Ant Sciatic. I would use 1.5% mepiv for fast dense block. She won’t need a bunch of pain control post op because the fax will be fixed.
I would try sedation for the case but I wouldn’t hesitate to intubate with good LTA topicalization. I would keep her HR in the 60’s and BP just over 100/60 or as close to this as I could. ETCO in the 30’s.
Induction meds would be no more than 5cc of propofol and muscle relaxant of choice (roc for me).
If she were to crump I would start dobutamine and consider milrinone or inhaled nitric.
I almost agree with Noyac, at least with the idea of GA plus regional. Except that with a PASP of 81, I'd want an aortic BP much higher than 100/60, otherwise she won't perfuse that RV properly, plus the squeeze of the RV is dependent on the bulging of the LV into it. I would keep her BP (and HR) close to her home values (if known), or recent values in the chart. Probably much higher than 100/60. That's actually a rule of thumb I find very useful whenever I do cases on sick people, even "without an a-line".
Her LV should be fine, it just needs time to fill. A tachyarrhythmia may kill her, so dobutamine is not a friend here. Spontaneous ventilation while maintaining a decent pCO2 is, so I would encourage PSV, IF possible (and I would use sux, not roc, to give her a chance for SV).
Pain is also a pulmonary vasoconstrictor. The regional blocks should also help with avoiding a deep GA and maintaining SV. I would judiciously titrate in fentanyl, during the case, instead of a lot of sevo.
If possible, I would also place an LMA instead of an ETT (obese women are not like obese men, and there is obese and OBESE) if NPO allows - pre-induction gastric ultrasound may be a good idea. The less sympathetic stimulation, the better she'll do, but also the less aspiration...
This is also a case that would benefit from a PAC. Now that should generate the usual "a-line" type of discussion.
😛 If she misbehaves in any way during induction, I would place one.
I would avoid neuraxial like the plague. Single-shot spinal is out; I have never done a spinal catheter and I think the room for error is very small here. An epidural cannot be relied upon for surgical anesthesia. The only reason to do an epidural would be as part of an epidural/GA technique, instead of a regional/GA one. I disagree that dropping the afterload in a controlled fashion wouldn't be a problem. It could be a HUGE one: the moment the RV coronary perfusion goes away it could be bye-bye, so I wouldn't drop that afterload much (from her usual values). Unless one has a PAC in place, one doesn't know crap about her current PA pressures (the PASP of 81 was without the pain and stress of a femoral fracture - her PA pressures could be 100/60 as far as we know).
She should also get an IVC filter during the procedure.
tl;dr: For this patient I want to maintain the preload, maintain her usual afterload, avoid hypoxia/hypercarbia/pain, avoid (tachy)arrhythmias, maintain SV if possible, use regional blocks to avoid deep GA and the need for CV.
The usual disclaimer: I am not a cardiac anesthesiologist, just an "experimental (patho)physiologist", so educate me.
😉