This should be a fairly simple concept from what I can tell. So I think its a matter of syntactical confusion.
First, ERP needs to be defined. Effective refractory period is the time when NO stimulation can cause another AP. Why is this the case? this is because the AP has not sufficiently decreased enough to open the gates for the funny Na current involved in phase 4. These currents only open up when the AP has sufficiently decline enough to some level. This extends from the minute phase zero begins and all the way to when phase 4 is ending.
Thus, the ERP is not necessarily during the repolarization phase but the phases before that including the slow rise of the AP.
CCB prolong repolarization not because they necessarily affect the repolarization phase itself but by lengthening the entire AP - this is because they slow the rate at which the phase zero current opens. Because of the decreased slope of phase zero the entire AP is stretched out- as a result the reploarization phase also is pushed farther out (though its slope may not be affected)- thus this causes an increase in the overall repolarization.
Finally, the biggest confusion seems to be what CCBs actually do. They do NOT completely block calcium channels. I know weird right. They only slow them down. As a result, they delay the action potential slope and lengthen int instead of closing it entirely. If they completley blocked then yes the AP would be shortened and the ERP would be shortened. but instead, they merely slow the calcium movement....this causes the slope to be longer.