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I can't think of a logical reason why this IgG wouldn't just go kick the babies a$$.... I remember goljan saying something about it but don't have time right now to re-listen to it
Some kid actually just asked our professor this, and rhogam does cross the placenta. Think about it. It's IgG, and we have been told for our whole lives the IgG crosses. Why would this one be any different. Goljan is the man, but he explains concepts so we understand them, he doesn't always use scientific fact.
Clinnically, it isn't used very often during pregnancy anymore. And those that do get it, typically are given a does that quickly bind the fetal cells before crossing the placenta. (Yes, I know this is a bad theory, and my profesor doesn't agree with it either, but that is what is being used to make clinical decisions)
The majority of the time rhogam is used, is post partum so there is no worry about it crossing the placenta.
Bottom line: yes it does cross the placenta, but it is dosed to have minimal effect.
Some kid actually just asked our professor this, and rhogam does cross the placenta. Think about it. It's IgG, and we have been told for our whole lives the IgG crosses. Why would this one be any different. Goljan is the man, but he explains concepts so we understand them, he doesn't always use scientific fact.
Clinnically, it isn't used very often during pregnancy anymore. And those that do get it, typically are given a does that quickly bind the fetal cells before crossing the placenta. (Yes, I know this is a bad theory, and my profesor doesn't agree with it either, but that is what is being used to make clinical decisions)
The majority of the time rhogam is used, is post partum so there is no worry about it crossing the placenta.
Bottom line: yes it does cross the placenta, but it is dosed to have minimal effect.
Ah your professor is incorrect, it does not cross the placenta. an IGG does but Rhogam is an Anti-D globulin, it comes from other women who have been sensitized and it is heat treated and all that stuff, so it does not cross. if it crossed the placenta it would not do its job, it would cause a hemolytic anemia in the baby if it crossed over. not doing its job. Its a prophylaxis. The idea of Anti-D (rhogam is to prevent the mothers sensitization to the fetal/maternal mixing of blood. which can occur pre delivery and of course at delivery. Anti Globulin D jumps onto the fetal RH+ blood if the mother gets exposed to it and masks the binding Sites or Destroys the fetal RBC so the mother does not mount an antibody response. it does ot work if the mother has already had a Rh+ pregnancy and she is RH- she is sensitized and the Rhogam will do nothing. and the event of another pregnancy could result in kernicterus, a combined left and right sided heart failure, leading to hydrops fetalis etc. because the anti D IGG crosses over and attached to baby RBC, and splenic macrophages cause a hemolytic anemia.
now one protecting thing is for a ABO type O mother is that they have the IGM circulating anti-A or Anti-B. so if she has a ABO baby that is type A, even if a fetal RBC gets into circulation that RBC will last a mili-second and be destroyed and thus protect the mother from mounting an anti-D antibody. but Rhrogam is given just the same because nothing is perfect. Happy Nerding all.
yeah Goljan, states in his laudio lecture that they just want you to know that it covers the RBC of the Rh+ fetal blood if it gets into the mothers circulation to "hide the receptors" from the the mothers immune system so she never mounts a response to it.agreed! Wise words from pink
Sounds like something a little too controversial for the boards to actually test.
Not to put a kink into your debate but I had one question on Rhogam on the USMLE (took it last week). It was confusing so I picked and clicked.
Ah your professor is incorrect, it does not cross the placenta. an IGG does but Rhogam is an Anti-D globulin, it comes from other women who have been sensitized and it is heat treated and all that stuff, so it does not cross. if it crossed the placenta it would not do its job, it would cause a hemolytic anemia in the baby if it crossed over. not doing its job. Its a prophylaxis. The idea of Anti-D (rhogam is to prevent the mothers sensitization to the fetal/maternal mixing of blood. which can occur pre delivery and of course at delivery. Anti Globulin D jumps onto the fetal RH+ blood if the mother gets exposed to it and masks the binding Sites or Destroys the fetal RBC so the mother does not mount an antibody response. it does ot work if the mother has already had a Rh+ pregnancy and she is RH- she is sensitized and the Rhogam will do nothing. and the event of another pregnancy could result in kernicterus, a combined left and right sided heart failure, leading to hydrops fetalis etc. because the anti D IGG crosses over and attached to baby RBC, and splenic macrophages cause a hemolytic anemia.
now one protecting thing is for a ABO type O mother is that they have the IGM circulating anti-A or Anti-B. so if she has a ABO baby that is type A, even if a fetal RBC gets into circulation that RBC will last a mili-second and be destroyed and thus protect the mother from mounting an anti-D antibody. but Rhrogam is given just the same because nothing is perfect. Happy Nerding all.
Awesome explanation...even though whether or not Rhogam crosses the placenta is still controversial (I think the consensus here on SDN is leaning towards it crossing). You made a few really good points:
1) Rhogam basically does the mothers immune systems job of picking off the Rh+ RBCs... hence the mother never developes the IgGs.
2) If Rhogam were to cross the placenta (even if engineered not to do so, some would still invariable cross) it would cause kernicturus in the fetus.. the result we are specifically attempting to avoid..
3) I also read in Goljan how O- mothers have the added benefit of having preformed anti A and anti B Abs against fetal RBCs, allowing for rapid removal of any fetal blooding mixing before IgG can be formed..
4) So the source of Rhogam is from other sensitized women?? Sorry my pharm is a bit rusty. How does heat treating it effect it? Does it prevent a maternal reaction against the rhogam?
as much as I hate to think a pre-med is gonna come in here and school a bunch of med students and residents, this makes sense to me...It has to do with the dose, and how much fetal blood actually gets into the mom. In a typical pregnancy, only a few ml of fetal blood gets into the mother. If she is RH -, then she has no D antigen anywhere in her body, and thus only a very small about of the anti-D (i.e., rhogam) is needed to prevent sensitization in the mom. Think of the amount of a usual maternal total body blood volume (about 6-7 liters) and if only a few ml of fetal blood gets into mom, then not much rhogam is needed to soak up these few fetal D antigens.
Yes, the rhogam does cross the placenta, and but so little is used in the mom, that the amount that gets into baby is not enough to cause a clinically significant fetal hemolysis.
If there is a more significant fetal-maternal hemorrhage, (like with placental abruption or trauma) then they can do maternal D titers and figure out exactly how much rhogam is needed, there are formulas for this.
So does Rhogam target Rh+ RBCs for destruction before an immune response can be formed, or does it just hide the D antigen by competitively and irreversibly blocking that antigen?
It has to do with the dose, and how much fetal blood actually gets into the mom. In a typical pregnancy, only a few ml of fetal blood gets into the mother. If she is RH -, then she has no D antigen anywhere in her body, and thus only a very small about of the anti-D (i.e., rhogam) is needed to prevent sensitization in the mom. Think of the amount of a usual maternal total body blood volume (about 6-7 liters) and if only a few ml of fetal blood gets into mom, then not much rhogam is needed to soak up these few fetal D antigens.
Yes, the rhogam does cross the placenta, and but so little is used in the mom, that the amount that gets into baby is not enough to cause a clinically significant fetal hemolysis.
If there is a more significant fetal-maternal hemorrhage, (like with placental abruption or trauma) then they can do maternal D titers and figure out exactly how much rhogam is needed, there are formulas for this.
"Routinely one vial is administered at 28 weeks of gestation and a second within 72 hours following delivery.."
Why is it that only one dose is needed for mothers? Does the rhogam remain in the mothers system for the next couple of weeks? If it does remain for so long how does it not eventually cause jaundice in the fetus (even if it only enters at low levels)??