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I just read a post regarding that UMDNJ made a student a resident prior to beginning the program there (i.e. - in state tuition for all four years).
What is the general practice for this? Here is my situation:
I am from the great Garden State/armpit(j/k) and have interviewed at several out-of-state schools. The ones in NY State, all guaranteed that after the first year, I would be eligible for in-state tuition, no problem. Pitt, on the otherhand, told me that it is a total crapshoot, in that two students can have identical situations and only one receives in-state tuition after one year.
Maryland, a school which I really like, said that students can apply for it, but again, it is random as to who receives it and said that it is up to the state/powers that be, etc...However, after looking on their website, it is the school that classifies you for in-state/out-of state status????
Here are two thoughts on this I have:
If they can make this happen, why wouldn't they use this as a selling point to come to their school? In the past, I have read threads on this in which over past years, in-state was a no brainer for out-of states to receive and they(MD) told this to students during their interview. Is it "illiegal/taboo" (or do they want to avoid trouble) for the school to tell prospective students this hence, they now tell you that it is not guaranteed?
Any feedback on this from current/future students would be appreciated.
Also, what are your thoughts on calling a school you have been accepted to and say, "I would come here tomorrow...if I can be guaranteed in state tuition all four years? I know that it could not hurt, but would this be something that they can do? Again, looking at the website (MD's), it reads that they are the ones who make the determination for eligibility.
Thanks,
Crazy8
What is the general practice for this? Here is my situation:
I am from the great Garden State/armpit(j/k) and have interviewed at several out-of-state schools. The ones in NY State, all guaranteed that after the first year, I would be eligible for in-state tuition, no problem. Pitt, on the otherhand, told me that it is a total crapshoot, in that two students can have identical situations and only one receives in-state tuition after one year.
Maryland, a school which I really like, said that students can apply for it, but again, it is random as to who receives it and said that it is up to the state/powers that be, etc...However, after looking on their website, it is the school that classifies you for in-state/out-of state status????
Here are two thoughts on this I have:
If they can make this happen, why wouldn't they use this as a selling point to come to their school? In the past, I have read threads on this in which over past years, in-state was a no brainer for out-of states to receive and they(MD) told this to students during their interview. Is it "illiegal/taboo" (or do they want to avoid trouble) for the school to tell prospective students this hence, they now tell you that it is not guaranteed?
Any feedback on this from current/future students would be appreciated.
Also, what are your thoughts on calling a school you have been accepted to and say, "I would come here tomorrow...if I can be guaranteed in state tuition all four years? I know that it could not hurt, but would this be something that they can do? Again, looking at the website (MD's), it reads that they are the ones who make the determination for eligibility.
Thanks,
Crazy8
