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- May 30, 2004
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Hi pharmacist friends,
Quick question here from a 3rd year medical student colleague. So long story short, I had a script filled at a CVS over the weekend near my house. I started taking the medication as directed on the bottle label ("take 2 tablets twice a day"), and the next day got all kinds of diarrhea, so I decided to check the dosing on epocrates and found out that the pharmacy directions were instructing me to take 2 times the highest dose of this drug that is currently in the guidelines; the correct dose of this drug for my indication is 1000mg BID. So I call the pharmacist at the CVS to ask why the instructions are telling me to take 2x more than the highest recc dose of this drug for any indication, and she basically got irritated that I called her and pulled out the script I had brought in and said that the script said the same dosing that they put on the label and that it was my doctors fault for writing the wrong dose (I think there was some confusion between 2 500mg tabs BID vs. 2 1000mg tabs BID on the script). Either way, the question I have is, isnt there some responsibility on the pharmacist who filled a script for a dose of a drug that isnt indicated for anything? if the script is ambiguous about the dosing, shouldn't that require verification from the physician (especially because regardless of the schedule the dispense# didn't even agree with their label instructions?) I was very irritated that I was essentially being told, "we assumed that what the script said was a dose that doesn't exist for any indication, but we filled it anyway without any confirmation, and oh, by the way, its your doctors fault, not ours." Now, not being from the pharmacy world, something really irritated me about that general idea, and I wanted to ask if this is essentially a ****ty and incorrect pharmacist, or if its actually true that the pharmacy will fill any dose written on a script by a doc without liability, even if its a wrong dose? I mean, if someone leaves out a decimal, 7.5 mg of coumain is now 75mg; will a pharmacy still fill a script for a 75mg dose of coumdin because thats what it said on the script? (ridiculous example, but you get the point). Am I crazy here, or is this pharmacist I talked to incorrect?
Quick question here from a 3rd year medical student colleague. So long story short, I had a script filled at a CVS over the weekend near my house. I started taking the medication as directed on the bottle label ("take 2 tablets twice a day"), and the next day got all kinds of diarrhea, so I decided to check the dosing on epocrates and found out that the pharmacy directions were instructing me to take 2 times the highest dose of this drug that is currently in the guidelines; the correct dose of this drug for my indication is 1000mg BID. So I call the pharmacist at the CVS to ask why the instructions are telling me to take 2x more than the highest recc dose of this drug for any indication, and she basically got irritated that I called her and pulled out the script I had brought in and said that the script said the same dosing that they put on the label and that it was my doctors fault for writing the wrong dose (I think there was some confusion between 2 500mg tabs BID vs. 2 1000mg tabs BID on the script). Either way, the question I have is, isnt there some responsibility on the pharmacist who filled a script for a dose of a drug that isnt indicated for anything? if the script is ambiguous about the dosing, shouldn't that require verification from the physician (especially because regardless of the schedule the dispense# didn't even agree with their label instructions?) I was very irritated that I was essentially being told, "we assumed that what the script said was a dose that doesn't exist for any indication, but we filled it anyway without any confirmation, and oh, by the way, its your doctors fault, not ours." Now, not being from the pharmacy world, something really irritated me about that general idea, and I wanted to ask if this is essentially a ****ty and incorrect pharmacist, or if its actually true that the pharmacy will fill any dose written on a script by a doc without liability, even if its a wrong dose? I mean, if someone leaves out a decimal, 7.5 mg of coumain is now 75mg; will a pharmacy still fill a script for a 75mg dose of coumdin because thats what it said on the script? (ridiculous example, but you get the point). Am I crazy here, or is this pharmacist I talked to incorrect?