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Didn't know where else to post this. So I'm on my psych rotation, and I was seeing an inpatient who is basically bipolar, currently manic with psychosis and very grandiose ideas. He was picked up by the cops for driving drunk over 100 mph, and he threatened to kill the cops with guns he apparently had stashed in his house. Probably antisocial personality. Anyhow, I'm reading through the old computer records as he has been hospitalized 4 times, and in a note from about 3 years ago, some doctor says something to the effect of "he was found to have a lack of Y chromosome".
Of course my preceptor didn't really know as he hasn't thought about this stuff for about 10 years. How is it possible for a phenotypic male to lack a Y chromosome. He most certainly does NOT have Turner's syndrome. I was thinking that maybe the doc slipped up in the note and he has XYY syndrome, which would help explain his aggressiveness, etc. Any thoughts???
Of course my preceptor didn't really know as he hasn't thought about this stuff for about 10 years. How is it possible for a phenotypic male to lack a Y chromosome. He most certainly does NOT have Turner's syndrome. I was thinking that maybe the doc slipped up in the note and he has XYY syndrome, which would help explain his aggressiveness, etc. Any thoughts???