A few months ago I went for my annual eye exam and got a new rx for both glasses and contacts. I got my contacts at the office and my glasses about 2months after the contacts. Since wearing the glasses I began having these intense headaches. So, I asked the OD about them to which she stated she made no mistakes in the rx. After that, I went to a neurologist who said there was no reason for the HA, except possibly the eye strain from an incorrect rx. Now, I have to go see another eye doc and get a new exam. Hopefully, it helps. Anyway, is a situation like this considered malpractice? (I am not asking for personal advice) It seems as if the glasses and contacts are different strengths. To what level do you hold this OD, if in fact, it was the glasses all along?
Malpractice
- Thread starter VCU07
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1) In general, once you get above a certain strength, contact and spectacle prescriptions are not the same.
2) As far as it being malpractice, you would have to prove that i) you were harmed and ii) that the optometrist acted in a way that a reasonble optometrist would not have acted in determining your prescription.
For example, if the opomterist asked you "which is better, 1 or 2?" and you said "TWO" and the optometrist wrote you an Rx for "two" then it would not likely be malpractice because the optometrist acted in a reasonable way even if it is what caused the headaches.
Even if another eyedoctor finds a different Rx, that doesn't mean that the first one was "wrong."
Good luck....let us know how it works out.
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You're contacts and glasses should be at different Rxs (due to the optics of the visual system). Some people adapt better than others as well depending on the Rx and other factors.
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You've gotta be kidding me.
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