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MMS is mainly due to occlusion of anterior spinal artery.
According to Kaplan nuero, you get contralateral spastic paresis, loss of tactile, vibration, conscious proprioception.
These symptoms also should be bilateral right? Somehow, Kaplan does not seem to emphasize that these are bilateral and I don't think I understand why "contralateral" since most likely the occlusion of the ant. spinal artery will affect both side of the medial portion of the medulla just like it does in ASA syndrome. Can anyone explain this please?
Below is what I got from Firecracker comparing MMS with anterior spinal artery syndrome:
Anterior spinal artery (ASA) syndrome (infarction of anterior two-thirds of spinal cord): bilateral loss of pain and temperature (spinothalamic tract), bilateral weakness (lateral corticospinal tract) with preservation of fine touch, proprioception, and vibration (dorsal column)
According to Kaplan nuero, you get contralateral spastic paresis, loss of tactile, vibration, conscious proprioception.
These symptoms also should be bilateral right? Somehow, Kaplan does not seem to emphasize that these are bilateral and I don't think I understand why "contralateral" since most likely the occlusion of the ant. spinal artery will affect both side of the medial portion of the medulla just like it does in ASA syndrome. Can anyone explain this please?
Below is what I got from Firecracker comparing MMS with anterior spinal artery syndrome:
Anterior spinal artery (ASA) syndrome (infarction of anterior two-thirds of spinal cord): bilateral loss of pain and temperature (spinothalamic tract), bilateral weakness (lateral corticospinal tract) with preservation of fine touch, proprioception, and vibration (dorsal column)
- Anterior spinal artery syndrome results in the occlusion of the artery at the level of the spine; this is in contrast to medial medullary syndrome which results from the occlusion of the anterior spinal artery at the level of the medulla (thus, producing different symptoms).