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This is both an academic and personal question.
My dad has a melanoma and his surgeon described it as a Clark's Level I. My reading tells me that Clark's staging has been replaced by TMN and Breslow (measured with mm depth) stagings. I believe that Clark's I and Breslow I are the same.
This has also been referred to as a superficial spreading melanoma. I understand this to be a a level I (in both systems) that is confined to the epidermis. The surgeon told my dad that Clark's I do not become Clark's II. This confuses the hell out of me. Again, my reading implies that superficial spreading melanoma is (1) confined to the epidermis (2) a premalignant condition that can transform to an invasive melanoma.
So, my questions are...am I getting the staging conversions correct? What is the current standard for melanoma staging? Can the superficial spreading melanoma/Clark's I lesion transform to an invasive melanoma?
I'm sure my dad will be fine but I'm confused about the staging and haven't been able to find a good resource. Thanks.
My dad has a melanoma and his surgeon described it as a Clark's Level I. My reading tells me that Clark's staging has been replaced by TMN and Breslow (measured with mm depth) stagings. I believe that Clark's I and Breslow I are the same.
This has also been referred to as a superficial spreading melanoma. I understand this to be a a level I (in both systems) that is confined to the epidermis. The surgeon told my dad that Clark's I do not become Clark's II. This confuses the hell out of me. Again, my reading implies that superficial spreading melanoma is (1) confined to the epidermis (2) a premalignant condition that can transform to an invasive melanoma.
So, my questions are...am I getting the staging conversions correct? What is the current standard for melanoma staging? Can the superficial spreading melanoma/Clark's I lesion transform to an invasive melanoma?
I'm sure my dad will be fine but I'm confused about the staging and haven't been able to find a good resource. Thanks.