So I couldn't sleep and made my own passage and questions up. I just want to make sure the things are right.
You have an incline that is 5 meters tall and 10 meters long, angle of 30 degrees. A 10kg block is on the frictionless plane, at rest, and is allowed to slide down. At the bottom, 1 meter of a frictionless surface separates the base and a spring with a constant of 10N/m. The spring recoils and shoots the 10kg block back up the incline. How far from the start point does the block reach?
So for this, I had the initial questions: Is the final speed and/or the final time the same when sliding down a frictionless incline as it is being dropped straight down, as in free fall?
So as we all know, v = sqrt (2 g h) so 20*5; the speed would be 10 if I dropped it straight. For the incline, it would be vsq = v0sq + 2ad; where a is gsinO and d is 10, so it would be the same thing i think: sqrt (2*10sin30*10*) is 10.
So the speed is 10 m/second either way, but I think the times would differ. 5=5tsq for free fall, 10=(.5)(10sin30)(tsq) so it'd be 4 = tsq I think: the incline would take twice as long as free fall.
So then it slides one meter and hits the spring. Now this is where it starts to get confusing for me. Should I use F=mg =-kx? Or should I use energy; PE=mgh=KE = 0.5(k)(xsq)? If I use F=mg=kx; 10(10) = 10(x); the spring is compressed 10 meters on recoil. If I use PE; (100)(5) = (5)(xsq) and it's recoiled 10 meters. I also thought about using impulse but there's no time given, and work is FdeltaV...so again, not sure if I can use that here.
I'm going to insert a side question: If a 10kg object at 10m/s and 20kg object at 5m/s speed slam into a wall, which has the larger force?
In either case, the spring recoils 10 meters and shoots the 10kg back up the 10 meter incline. Since the energy was conserved, the speed didn't change, it still has 500J of energy. But this time, gravity is working against the object. W=Fd; 500 = (mgsinO)(d) = (10*5)(d) = 10 meters? It would go directly back up the incline?
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You have an incline that is 5 meters tall and 10 meters long, angle of 30 degrees. A 10kg block is on the frictionless plane, at rest, and is allowed to slide down. At the bottom, 1 meter of a frictionless surface separates the base and a spring with a constant of 10N/m. The spring recoils and shoots the 10kg block back up the incline. How far from the start point does the block reach?
So for this, I had the initial questions: Is the final speed and/or the final time the same when sliding down a frictionless incline as it is being dropped straight down, as in free fall?
So as we all know, v = sqrt (2 g h) so 20*5; the speed would be 10 if I dropped it straight. For the incline, it would be vsq = v0sq + 2ad; where a is gsinO and d is 10, so it would be the same thing i think: sqrt (2*10sin30*10*) is 10.
So the speed is 10 m/second either way, but I think the times would differ. 5=5tsq for free fall, 10=(.5)(10sin30)(tsq) so it'd be 4 = tsq I think: the incline would take twice as long as free fall.
So then it slides one meter and hits the spring. Now this is where it starts to get confusing for me. Should I use F=mg =-kx? Or should I use energy; PE=mgh=KE = 0.5(k)(xsq)? If I use F=mg=kx; 10(10) = 10(x); the spring is compressed 10 meters on recoil. If I use PE; (100)(5) = (5)(xsq) and it's recoiled 10 meters. I also thought about using impulse but there's no time given, and work is FdeltaV...so again, not sure if I can use that here.
I'm going to insert a side question: If a 10kg object at 10m/s and 20kg object at 5m/s speed slam into a wall, which has the larger force?
In either case, the spring recoils 10 meters and shoots the 10kg back up the 10 meter incline. Since the energy was conserved, the speed didn't change, it still has 500J of energy. But this time, gravity is working against the object. W=Fd; 500 = (mgsinO)(d) = (10*5)(d) = 10 meters? It would go directly back up the incline?
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