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TOM_24

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1. how do you treat traumatic bone cyst
a. leave it alone:)
b. excise
c. give meds
2. which cyst is associate with anterior cyst w/ crown
3. common cyst is lower anterior teeth and teeth is vital
periapical cemato dysplasia
4. know different between amelogenesis imperfecta and dentinogenesis imperfecta
5. which of the following represents the basic constituent of the most root canal sealer
a. zinc oxide
b. zinc stearate
c. polyvinyl resin
d. polycarboxylate
e. zinc oxyphosphate
6. aging of the pulp is evidenced by an increase in
a. vascularly
b. cellular elements
c. fibrous elements
d. pulp stones
7. in the normal dental pulp, which of the following histologic features is least likely to appear
a. cell-free zone of weil
b. palisade odontoblastic layer
c. lymphocytes and plasma cells
d. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
8 the most commonly found salivary gland tumor is
a. adenocystic carcinoma
b. pleomorphic adenoma
c. muco epidermoid carcinoma
9 the action f the Hawley appliance is mainly
a. intrusion
b. tipping
c. bodily movement
10 a light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered
a. intermittent
b. direct
c. continuous
d. indirect
11 the fluoride concentration in most dentifrices range from
a. 1-5 ppm
b. 900-1500ppm
c. 450-700ppm
d. 4000-6000ppm
12 in a full upper denture the post palatal seal is determined by
a. the technician
b. the depth of the vibration line
c. 2-3mm
13 how is scrap amalgam is stored
a. under water
b. under sulfide
c. glycerin
14 the leas likely situation for a carcinoma to occur in the oral cavity is
a. floor of the mouth
b. alveolar ridge
c. lateral border of the tongue
15 histologically, the loss of the rete peg often is a sign of
a. pemphigus
b. lichen planus
c. pemphigoid
d. syphills
16 which of the following represents the predominate type cell type in crevicular epithelium
a. mast cell
b. PMN
c. macrophage
d. lymphocyte
e. plasma cell
17 which of the organisms are involved with periodontal disease
a. P. gingivilits
b. E. species
c. C. rectus
d. Bacteroid
e. all of the above
18 each of the following has been associated with gastric limitation, except
a. acetaminophen
b. alcohol
c. ibuprofen
d. indomethacin
19 the most common reason for fracture of an amalgam in class 2 pedo molar toth
a. insufficient deth
b. saliva contamination during condensation
d. line angle too sharp
20 the best reason for RPD over fixed partial denture
a. hygiene
b. cooperation
c. esthetic
21 where is the gold directed on an MO onlay spruce
a, faces pulpal axial line angle
b. occlusal floor
c. pulpal floor
d. gingival floor
22 which injection post the greatest risk for a hematoma
a. PSA
b. MSA
c. mandibular block
23 why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion
24 the least likely fracture site in the mandible will be
a. coronoid
b. condyle
c. body of mandible
d. ramus
e. symphysis
25 which tooth will the matrix band be a problem with when placing a two surface amalgam
a. mesial on maxillary first molar
b. distal on maxillary first premolar
c. mesial on maxillary second premolar
d. distal on mandibular first molar
26 what is pulpectomy
a. extirpating pulp chamber and canal completely
b. partial instrumentation of the canal
c. complete cleaning and shaping
27 the greatest appositional growth occur
a. posterior border of the ramus
b. anterior part of ramus
c. chin
28 when do you do serial extraction
a. for space deficiency in mandibular anterior region
b. for space deficiency in mandibular posterior region
c. for space deficiency in maxillary anterior region
b. for space deficiency in maxillary posterior region
29 on what surface of the tooth is there deposition of F
a. smooth surface
b. pits
c. fissures
30 how will treat patient with type 2 furcation
a. tissue guided regeneration
b. oral hygiene instruction and root planing
c. reposition flap surgery
31 thumb sucking can cause all the following except
a. deep over bite
b. protruded maxillary incisor
c. lingual tipping of the mandibular incisors
d. anterior open bite
how will treat a vital second molar with a 1.5mm exposure on a 12 years old patient
a. apexification
b. endodontic treatment
c. extract
d. apicoectomy
32 bonding on a tooth does all of the following except
a. chemical bonding
b. mechanical bonding
c. increase surface area
33 a patient complaint of recent severe pain with percussion of a tooth. The most likely cause is
a. acute apical periodontitis
b. chronic apical perio
c. reversible pulpitis
d. irreversible pulpitis
34 direct pulp capping is recommended for primary teeth with
a. carious exposure
b. mechanical exposure
c. calcification in the pulp chamber
d. all of the above
35 a calcium hydroxide pulpotomy performed on a young permanent tooth is judged to be succeful when
a. the patient is asymptomatic
b. the tooth responds to pulp testing
c. normal tooth development continues
all of the above
36 organism implicated on causing severe spreading abscesses include
a. Fusobacterium
b Campylobacter
c. Enterococci
d. Bacteroides
37 the periapical lesion that wound most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is
a. an abscess
b. a cyst
c. a granuloma
d. condensing osteitis
38 of the following periapical diagnosis, which most likely contain bacteria within the lesion
a. suppurative apical periodontitis
b. apical cyst
c. chronic apical perio
d. acute apical perio
39 a periodontal exam of a patient referred for endodontic treatment
a. there is an inward flow of fluid
b there is an outward flow of fluid
c. there is no fluid
40 you fit a new completed denture and the patient complaint of cheek biting, what would you do
a. grind buccal of lower teeth
b. grind buccal of upper teeth
c. grind lingula of lower teeth
d. grind lingula of upper teeth
41 with juvenile periodontitis which teeth are predominantly involved
a. first permanent molars and anterior teeth
b. all deciduous molars
c. all deciduous teeth
42 the optimal amount of tooth reduction on a molar for a metal ceramic crown preparation
a. 1.5mm
b. 1mm
c. 2mm
d. 2.5mm
e. 3mm
43 which drug is LEAST likely to result in an allergy reaction
a. epine
b. procaine
c. bisulfite
d. lidocaine
44 when doing an endo treatment you hit a ledge, what are you going to do
a. use a smaller instrument and get beyond the ledge
b. fill as far as you have reamed
c. use a small round bur and remove the ledge
d. continue working gently to eliminate the ledge
45 when treating deep packets in a patient with juvenile perio, the least effective treatment is
a. occlusal adjustment
b. root planing
c. antibiotic treatment
d. perio surgery
46 the materials that will produce the best osseous regeneration is
a. autograft
b. allograft
c. alloplastic
d. simigraft
47 what is main reason to splint mobile perio involved tooth
patient’s comfort
48 dysplasia is related to which of the following conditions. Please check
a. leukemia
b. diabetes
c. pregnancy
d. puberty
49 a patient with new denture can not make the “S” and “TH” sound, what is the problem
a. extensive vertical overlap
b. incisors place too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually
50 what composite should ideally be used for a class 5
a. microfil because it polished better
b. microfil because it is stronger
c. hybrid because it polished better
d. hybrid because it is stronger
51 what would you recommended for an 8 years old patient
a. this is a normal eruption pattern
b. refer for ortho
c. refer to oral surgery
52 between which teeth is the primate space found in the mandible
a. deciduous canine and first molar
53 what would you warm patient about who is taking birth control pills and requires Penicillian
a. penicillin decrease effectiveness of birth control pill
b. birth control pill decrease effectiveness of pen
c. they may develop allergy
54 after doing RCT, the success can be determine by all the following except
a. loss of periapical lucency on a radiograph
b. formation of apical scar
c. absence of pain
d. absence of exudate
55 what is the impression materials with the best dimension stability 24 after taking the impression
a. PVS
b. reversible colloid
c. irreversible colloid
56 what radiograph would you prescribe for a young patient who has no caries and where the molar teeth are
contacting each other
a. BW and occlusal
b. FMS
c. pan
d. pan and ceph
57 how far should implants be placed from one another
a. 3mm
b. 4mm
c. 5mm
d. 7mm
58 what does of F are most effective
a. small dose high frequency
b. small doses low frequency
c. high doses high frequency
d. high doses low frequency
59 if a patient has SNA of 82 and a SNB of 87 wht type of malocclusion will be seen
a. mandibular protrusion
b. maxillary protrusion
c. maxillary retrusion
d. mandibular retrusion
60 in what part of the month are metastases seen most frequently
a. mandible
b. lateral border of tongue
c. palate
d. floor of the month
61 the greatest decrease in radiation to the patient/gonads can be achieved by
a. change from D to F speed
b. thyroid collar
c. filtration
d. collimation
62 meperidine overdose is treated with
a. naloxone
b. amphetamine
c. nalbuphine and epine
63 what is the complication of up righting molar
a. move distally and extrudes
b. a class 3 molar relationship can develop
c. class 2 molar relationship can develop
64 what materials will be used for a non vital pulpotomy in a primary tooth? ZOE as root canal filling
can not do pulpotomy on a non vital primary tooth
65 a new patient comes in to see you with deep pockets. What will you initially do
a. scaling and root planing
b. gingivectomy
c. WMF
66 when will the BULL rule be utilized with selective grinding
a. working side
b. balance side
c. protrusive movement
d. all the above
67 which of the following can be used for topical anesthesia
a. lidocaine
b. benzocaine
68 collimation
a. reduce the size of the beam
b. reduces the shape of the beam
c. reduces radiation to the patient
d. all the above
69 what can make porcelain crown lighter
a. value
b. chroma
c. hue
70 multiple periapical lucency are common in patients with which of the following condition
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. taurodontia
c. germination
d. amelogenesis imperfecta
e. dentinogenesis imperfecta
71 which of the following is the most common cause of TMJ ankylosis
a. trauma
b. otitis media
c. rheumatic arthritis
72 which of the following are effects common to pentobarbital, diazepam and meperidine
a. amnesia and skeletal muscle relaxation
b. anticonvulsant and hypnotic
c. analgesia and relief of anxiety
73 which of the following is the treatment of choice of a 7 year old child with a non vital permanent first molar
a. apexification
b. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
c. gutta percha root filling
74 which radiographs would be most effective in localizing a supernumary tooth and its relationship to other
teeth
a. 2 periapical views at different angles and an occlusal
b. a periapical and an occlusal
c. a periapical using a long cone
d. a pan and a supplemental occlusal
75 the relative position of the maxilla to the cranial base will be determined cephalometrically by the angle
a. SNA
b. SNB
c. Sn-GoGn
d. ANB
76 pan showing lucency going inferior over the body of mandible close to the angle. Informed the patient was
involved in an accident. Identify the lucency
a. pharyngeal airspace
b. fracture
c. artifact-retake radiograph
77 with mandibular bilateral distal extension RPD, when you place pressure on one sides the opposite side lifts
and vice versa, what is the problem
a. no indirect retention used
b. rests do not fit
c. acrylic resin base support
78 a patient with a new denture has a problem pronouncing the F and V sounds. What is the problem
a. maxillary incisors placed too far superior
b. maxillary incisors placed too far superior
c. mandibular incisors placed too far lingually
79 which of the following is the man side effect of bleaching of an endodontically treated tooth
a. external cervical resorption
b. demineralization of tooth structure
c. gingival inflammation
80 which nerve involved with a Le Forte II fracture
a. infra orbital
b. greater palatine
c. nasopalatine
d. PSA
81 when treating deep vertical pockets in a patient with juvenile periodontitis, the least effective treatment is
a. occlusal adjustment
b. root planing
c. antibiotic therapy
d. periodontal flap surgery
82 sedative drug such as hydroxyzine, meperidine and diazepam are carried in the blood in
a. serum
b. white blood cells
c. red blood cells
d. hemoglobin
83 steroid causes
a. adrenal gland suppression
b. thyroid gland suppression
c. parathyroid gland suppression
84 after opening the flap buccally in the maxillary premolar area, how will you suture it
a. interrupted
b. intermittent
c. mattress
85 the materials that will produce the BEST osseous regeneration is
a. autograft
b. allograft
c. alloplast
d. simiograft
86 the best combination treating TB
a. rifampin and isoniazid
b. rifampin and penicillin
c. ethambutol and penicillin
d. rifampin and streptomycin
87 the distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base by the
a. tuberosity
b. fovea palatine
c. maxillary tori
d. vibrating line
e. posterior palatal seal
88 the strength of dental investment for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of
a. silica
b. carbon
c. copper
d. gypsum
89 which med cause mydriasis
atropine
90 what happen to curve of spee in a patient who has lost tooth #19 and #20 have drifted
curve of spee reversed
91 what do you expect to occur in a child with an anterior edge to edge bite
class 3 malocclusion
92 lateral bennet shift is most likely to affected by centric occlusion
mesial distal steep incline, facial lingual steep incline
93 which of the following has the greatest coefficient of thermal expansion
a. gold
b. resin
c. amalgam
94 with insufficient light cure, which area is softer (underpolymerized)?
Core of the composite
95 what is advantage of a bonded bracket over a wire band
no separator need
96 conjunctivitis hemorrhage is the result of which fracture nasal maxillary sinus zygomatic arch
maxillozygomatic temporal
97 fracture of a rest of a chromium cobalt denture is due to
a. over-finish and polish
b. inadequate occlusal preparation
98 in office bleaching changes the shade through all except
a. dehydration
b. etching tooth
c. oxidation of colorant
d. surface demineralization
99 the lingual root of maxillary first molar radiographically appears mesial to the mesiobuccal root because the
cone was directed from
a. mesial
b. distal
c. superior
d. inferior
100 you fit new completed denture and the patient complains of cheek bite, what will you do
a. grinding buccal of lower teeth
b. grinding buccal of upper teeth
c. grinding lingual of lower teeth
d. grinding lingual of upper teeth

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1. how do you treat traumatic bone cyst
a. leave it alone:)
b. excise:confused: i think ans should be to induce heamorage which fill the cavity n complete empty space
c. give meds
2. which cyst is associate with anterior cyst w/ crown ---detigerous
3. common cyst is lower anterior teeth and teeth is vital
periapical cemato dysplasia:thumbup:
4. know different between amelogenesis imperfecta and dentinogenesis imperfecta both r autosomal dominat condition AI affect enamel, haypoplasia, calcification nmatuartion where as DI affect mesodraml origin tissue dentin cementum wear of layer so multiple pup exposure in type 3. short root n crown
5. which of the following represents the basic constituent of the most root canal sealer
a. zinc oxide:thumbup:
b. zinc stearate
c. polyvinyl resin
d. polycarboxylate
e. zinc oxyphosphate
6. aging of the pulp is evidenced by an increase in
a. vascularly
b. cellular elements
c. fibrous elements:thumbup:
d. pulp stones
7. in the normal dental pulp, which of the following histologic features is least likely to appear
a. cell-free zone of weil
b. palisade odontoblastic layer
c. lymphocytes and plasma cells:confused:
d. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
8 the most commonly found salivary gland tumor is
a. adenocystic carcinoma
b. pleomorphic adenoma:thumbup:
c. muco epidermoid carcinoma
9 the action f the Hawley appliance is mainly
a. intrusion
b. tipping:thumbup:
c. bodily movement
10 a light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered
a. intermittent:thumbup:
b. direct
c. continuous
d. indirect
11 the fluoride concentration in most dentifrices range from
a. 1-5 ppm
b. 900-1500ppm:thumbup:
c. 450-700ppm
d. 4000-6000ppm

Correct me if i m wrong
 
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