Looked through here and couldn't find the answers to these- help a brotha out!
Q. 58-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-year history of recurrent cough productive of increased sputum. Use of over-the-counter cough suppressants has not resolved his symptoms. He has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 35 years. He has no family history of lung disease. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows cyanosis. Diffuse wheezing is heard on auscultation. Which of the following pulmonary cell types is most likely to be abnormal in this patient?
- Answer: Pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells (Other options: Alveolar Endothelial cells, Alveolar Macrophages, Type I or Type II pneumocytes)
I get that this is more likely Chronic Bronchitis with metaplasia of the pseudostratified columnar epithelium to stratified squamous, but would i be wrong in thinking of this as also having a component of centrilobular emphysema with alveolar endothelial cell damage ("abnormality")?
Q. A 25-year-old man is admitted to the hospital because of severe crush injuries to the chest and extensive burns over 30% of his body surface area. Three hours later, he develops tachypnea and dyspnea. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows a decreased Po2 and Pco2. A chest x-ray shows bilateral interstitial and alveolar infiltrates. The patient is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Damage to which of the following is most likely to preclude restoration of normal tissue architecture and pulmonary function in this patient?
- Answer: Basement membranes (Other options: Capillaries, Fibroblasts, Macrophages, Mast Cells, Type I pneumocytes)
If I'm correct and this is ARDS, why would there not be capillary and even type I pneumocyte damage? From Goljan re ARDS: "Capillary damage causes leakage of a protein-rich exudate producing hyaline membranes. Neutrophils damage type I and II pneumocytes."
Q. 60-year-old man for routine health examination. Has had normal blood pressure measurements. BP today 170/95mmHg. Physical examination shows no other abnormalities. Serum show hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis. Plasma renin activity and serum aldosterone concentrations are increased. Following the administration of captopril, there is a marked increase in plasma renin activity. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the findings in this patient?
- Renal artery stenosis (Other options: Aldosterone-secreting tumor, Chronic glomerulonephritis, Cushing Syndrome, Essential Hypertension)
Couldn't the etiology of essential hypertension be idiopathically increased renin secretion? Given that, wouldn't it increase further with administration of an ACE-I?
Q. 24-year-old man with 3-day progressive numbness of both feet ascended to thighs. Last 24 hours, numbness and tingling of hands. PE ataxic gait. Deep tendon reflexes diminished in upper extremities and absent in knees and ankles. Vibration and joint position absent in fingertips and feet bilaterally. Mild weakness distal upper extremities ad moderate weakness of lower extremities. Structure involved?
- Myelinated primary afferents
Is this just GBS?