A 27 year old nulligravid woman comes for a routine health maintenance examination. She is sexually active with one lifelong partner. She does not smoke. She has no history of stds. Pap smear now shows a high grade sq intraepithelial neoplasia. Prior pap smears have shown no abnormalities. Examination of the cervix and vagina shows no gross abnormalities. which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. repeat pap smear
B. HPV testing.
C. Colposcopy.
D. Cone biopsy of the cervix.
E. Random cervical biopsies.
Could someone please help with this q (preferably someone who actually got it right, PLZ). And explain the reason thx. Also i chose choice C colposcopy, and it's incorrect.I know uw q 4758 says it's colposcopy but it's wrong that why I don't know how to reason it out.
thanks in advance
A. repeat pap smear
B. HPV testing.
C. Colposcopy.
D. Cone biopsy of the cervix.
E. Random cervical biopsies.
Could someone please help with this q (preferably someone who actually got it right, PLZ). And explain the reason thx. Also i chose choice C colposcopy, and it's incorrect.I know uw q 4758 says it's colposcopy but it's wrong that why I don't know how to reason it out.
thanks in advance